Preparing for the Nepal Pharmacy Council licensing examination requires a good understanding of pharmaceutical analysis, pharmaceutics, pharmacology, pharmacy practice, pharmaceutical quality assurance, drug regulation and public health.
This article contains Nepal Pharmacy Council model questions from 201 to 275, with answers and short explanations. These questions are provided for educational practice and examination revision. They should not be considered an official Nepal Pharmacy Council question paper unless officially published by the Council.
For additional practice, you can also read:
Nepal Pharmacy Council Model Questions – Part 1
Nepal Pharmacy Council Model Questions – Part 2
Questions 201–275
201. The Kjeldahl method is used for the determination of:
Answer: B. Nitrogen
Explanation: The Kjeldahl method is a classical analytical method used mainly to determine nitrogen content in organic substances and is commonly used for estimating protein content.
202. The ultraviolet range commonly used in spectrophotometry is:
Answer: A. 200–400 nm
Explanation: The ultraviolet region used in UV-Visible spectrophotometry is commonly approximately 200–400 nm.
203. The difference between a measured value and the true or accepted value is associated with:
Answer: B. Accuracy
Explanation: Accuracy describes how close a measured result is to the accepted or true value. Precision describes the closeness of repeated measurements to each other.
204. Spectrophotometric analysis is commonly based on:
Answer: D. Beer-Lambert law
Explanation: Beer-Lambert law relates absorbance to the concentration of an absorbing substance and the path length under suitable conditions.
205. Which silver compound is commonly used for the determination of chloride ions?
Answer: D. AgNO₃
Explanation: Silver nitrate reacts with chloride ions to form insoluble silver chloride and is widely used in argentometric titration.
206. Which indicator is used in the titration of iodine with sodium thiosulfate?
Answer: D. Starch solution
Explanation: Starch forms an intense blue complex with iodine and is therefore commonly used as an indicator in iodometric titration.
207. The O–H absorption band in an infrared spectrum is generally observed:
Answer: B. Around 3200–3600 cm⁻¹
Explanation: O–H stretching absorption generally occurs in the higher-wavenumber region around 3200–3600 cm⁻¹. Hydrogen bonding can broaden the band.
208. Methylparaben is used as a preservative in pharmaceutical syrups at:
Answer: A. 0.01–0.3%
Explanation: Parabens are generally used at relatively low concentrations. The exact concentration depends on the formulation and applicable standards.
209. Which colorant can provide a yellow color to pharmaceutical preparations?
Answer: B. Tartrazine
Explanation: Tartrazine is a yellow synthetic colorant used in some pharmaceutical and food preparations where permitted.
210. Which drug has extensive clinical experience supporting its use during pregnancy when treatment is indicated?
Answer: C. Acyclovir
Explanation: Acyclovir has substantial clinical experience in pregnancy and may be used when clinically indicated. Medicine selection should always follow current clinical guidance.
211. If hepatic metabolism remains unchanged while the volume of distribution increases, the drug half-life will generally:
Answer: A. Increase
Explanation: For many drugs, half-life is related to volume of distribution and clearance. If volume of distribution increases while clearance remains unchanged, half-life generally increases.
212. A very large suture size is least suitable for delicate tissue such as:
Answer: D. Facial skin
Explanation: Facial wounds generally require finer sutures to reduce tissue trauma and improve cosmetic outcomes.
213. Which drug is not generally considered an absolute contraindication with warfarin, although monitoring may be required?
Answer: D. Allopurinol
Explanation: Aspirin and NSAIDs can increase bleeding risk with warfarin. Other medicines can also interact, so the complete medication history should be reviewed.
214. Ceftriaxone should not be mixed or simultaneously administered with which calcium-containing IV product in certain patients?
Answer: C. Calcium gluconate
Explanation: Ceftriaxone can form precipitates with calcium-containing IV products. Particular precautions apply to neonates.
215. Which of the following has the lowest relative sweetening intensity?
Answer: A. Sorbitol
Explanation: Sorbitol is considerably less intensely sweet than high-intensity sweeteners such as saccharin, sucralose and aspartame.
216. All of the following may be ingredients of an effervescent tablet except:
Answer: A. Tannic acid
Explanation: Effervescent tablets commonly contain an acid such as citric or tartaric acid together with sodium bicarbonate or another carbonate source.
217. Powder flow can commonly be assessed using:
Answer: B. Hausner's ratio
Explanation: Hausner's ratio is calculated from bulk and tapped density and provides an indication of powder flowability.
218. During tablet compression, sticking of material to the punch face can be reduced by:
Answer: A. Appropriate use of lubricant or anti-adherent
Explanation: Sticking can be related to formulation, moisture, tooling and compression conditions. Proper lubrication and punch maintenance can help reduce the problem.
219. Sodium metabisulfite in liquid pharmaceutical preparations is mainly used as:
Answer: C. Antioxidant
Explanation: Sodium metabisulfite can act as a reducing antioxidant and protect susceptible ingredients from oxidation.
220. Which colorant is generally not supplied as a conventional dry powder?
Answer: A. Caramel
Explanation: Caramel is commonly supplied as a liquid or concentrated color preparation, whereas many synthetic colorants are available as powders.
221. A commonly used long-term stability condition for pharmaceutical products is:
Answer: B. 30°C
Explanation: Stability conditions depend on the climatic zone and applicable guideline. Many products intended for hot and humid regions use long-term conditions around 30°C with controlled humidity.
222. Which is not normally considered a conventional tablet disintegrant?
Answer: B. Gelatin
Explanation: Starch and sodium starch glycolate are common disintegrants. Gelatin is more commonly used as a binder or coating material.
223. Which compound is generally not necessary for manufacturing a basic ointment?
Answer: C. Tartrazine
Explanation: Tartrazine is a colorant and is not required for the basic manufacture of an ointment.
224. Anhydrous lanolin is used to prepare an:
Answer: D. Absorption base
Explanation: Anhydrous lanolin can absorb water and is therefore used as an absorption-base component.
225. Which is not a chemical degradation process responsible for dosage-form instability?
Answer: A. Decantation
Explanation: Decantation is a physical separation process. Hydrolysis and oxidation are chemical degradation processes.
226. Homogenization is particularly important in the preparation of:
Answer: B. Emulsions
Explanation: Homogenization reduces droplet size and improves the uniformity and physical stability of emulsions.
227. Which oral liquid preparation may require microbiological quality testing?
Answer: D. All suitable non-sterile aqueous oral preparations
Explanation: Non-sterile aqueous oral preparations may support microbial growth and therefore require appropriate microbiological quality testing according to applicable standards.
228. The quality of pharmaceutical purified water is assessed using:
Answer: C. Multiple pharmacopoeial quality requirements
Explanation: Pharmaceutical water quality is assessed using applicable specifications such as conductivity, total organic carbon and microbiological quality.
229. Sodium EDTA is used in liquid pharmaceutical preparations mainly as a:
Answer: C. Chelating agent
Explanation: EDTA binds metal ions and can improve formulation stability by reducing metal-catalyzed degradation.
230. Under GMP principles, authorized personnel have an important responsibility for:
Answer: B. Product quality and release decisions
Explanation: Authorized personnel are responsible for ensuring that batches meet established quality requirements before release according to the applicable GMP system.
231. The critical zone for aseptic filling of sterile pharmaceutical preparations is generally:
Answer: B. Grade A
Explanation: Grade A provides the critical environment for high-risk aseptic operations such as sterile filling.
232. Which ISO family covers quality management systems?
Answer: A. ISO 9000 family
Explanation: The ISO 9000 family addresses quality management systems. ISO 14000 relates to environmental management, while ISO 45001 concerns occupational health and safety.
For more pharmaceutical quality information, you can read Quality Control Tests of Tablets in the Pharmaceutical Industry.
233. Drug-law enforcement and prosecution involve:
Answer: C. Competent regulatory and legal authorities
Explanation: Drug-law enforcement involves designated regulatory and legal authorities. Exact procedures should be checked against current Nepalese legislation.
234. Penalties for selling expired medicines are determined by:
Answer: A. Current applicable drug legislation
Explanation: Penalties depend on the specific offence and the law currently in force. Students should verify current provisions rather than relying on old question-bank answers.
235. Adding all or part of a previous batch that meets the necessary quality requirements to a new batch is termed:
Answer: B. Recovery
Explanation: Recovery can involve incorporating acceptable material from a previous batch into another batch or process where permitted and appropriately controlled.
236. Which may not normally be a key element of a Product Quality Review?
Answer: B. Quality-related manufacturing trends
Explanation: Product Quality Review focuses on significant quality information, deviations, specifications, complaints, recalls and manufacturing trends. Routine recording of the total time of every individual operation is not normally the primary focus.
237. Provisions concerning specific drug-related restrictions should be checked in:
Answer: A. Current Drugs Act and related regulations
Explanation: Drug-law provisions should be verified using the current official legislation and regulations because legal requirements may change.
238. Nepal Pharmacy Council registration primarily relates to:
Answer: A. Professional registration and practice
Explanation: Professional registration provides legal recognition to practice as a pharmacist under the applicable professional and regulatory framework.
239. Drug classification and regulatory categories are determined according to:
Answer: A. Applicable drug regulations
Explanation: Drug categories and restrictions are established through applicable legislation, regulations and regulatory schedules.
240. A drug has a 120 mg IV bolus dose and produces a plasma concentration of 2 mcg/mL after 12 hours. If its half-life is 6 hours, the approximate volume of distribution is:
Answer: B. 15 L
Explanation: After 12 hours, two half-lives have passed, so the concentration has fallen from C₀ to 2 mcg/mL × 4 = 8 mcg/mL. Vd = Dose/C₀ = 120 mg ÷ 8 mg/L = 15 L.
241. A common reason for discontinuation of SSRIs such as fluoxetine is:
Answer: A. Delayed onset of therapeutic effects
Explanation: Antidepressant benefits generally take several weeks to become evident, which may affect adherence. Adverse effects can also contribute to discontinuation.
242. Which is a clinically significant microsomal enzyme inducer?
Answer: C. Rifampicin
Explanation: Rifampicin is a strong enzyme inducer and can reduce the concentrations and effectiveness of many medicines.
243. Which is a recognized historical regimen for Helicobacter pylori infection?
Answer: C. Omeprazole + clarithromycin + amoxicillin
Explanation: Proton-pump-inhibitor-based triple therapy containing clarithromycin and amoxicillin has historically been used. Current treatment should be based on local resistance patterns and current guidelines.
244. A prescription requires amoxicillin 500 mg/5 mL, 5 mL three times daily for 7 days. If only 250 mg/5 mL suspension is available, what volume provides the prescribed 500 mg dose?
Answer: C. 10 mL
Explanation: The available product contains 250 mg in 5 mL. Therefore, 500 mg requires 10 mL. For three doses daily for seven days, the total volume required is 210 mL.
245. When dispensing a cold medicine containing a sympathomimetic decongestant, which history is particularly important?
Answer: B. High blood pressure
Explanation: Some systemic decongestants can increase blood pressure and heart rate, so hypertension should be considered before recommending them.
246. A commonly used general energy range for adult total parenteral nutrition is:
Answer: B. 25–35 kcal/kg/day
Explanation: Energy requirements vary with age, weight and clinical condition, but 25–35 kcal/kg/day is a commonly used general range for adults.
247. An increase in USP suture designation from 2-0 to 3-0 indicates:
Answer: A. Decrease in diameter
Explanation: For USP sizes expressed using zeros, a greater number of zeros indicates a finer, smaller-diameter suture.
248. Which advice is important when dispensing cotrimoxazole?
Answer: C. Maintain adequate fluid intake unless medically contraindicated
Explanation: Adequate hydration can help reduce the risk of crystalluria and renal complications associated with sulfonamide-containing medicines.
249. Crystalluria or renal adverse effects may occur with certain combinations involving acetazolamide. Which medicine requires particular attention?
Answer: C. Ciprofloxacin
Explanation: Drug combinations can sometimes increase the risk of crystalluria or renal adverse effects. Patients should be monitored appropriately.
250. Which represents a Phase II drug-metabolizing reaction?
Answer: A. Acetylation
Explanation: Acetylation is a conjugation reaction classified as Phase II metabolism. Oxidation, reduction and hydrolysis are generally Phase I reactions.
251. Alkalinization of urine generally increases the renal excretion of:
Answer: C. Weak acids
Explanation: Alkaline urine increases ionization of weak acids, reducing tubular reabsorption and increasing renal excretion.
252. Therapeutic index primarily provides information about a drug's:
Answer: C. Safety
Explanation: Therapeutic index compares toxic and effective dose measures and provides an indication of the drug's safety margin.
253. Which dosage form is generally not required to be sterile?
Answer: D. Rectal suppositories
Explanation: Ophthalmic preparations must be sterile. Rectal suppositories are generally non-sterile unless specifically manufactured as sterile products.
254. An initial dose of chloroquine is 600 mg base. If each tablet contains 200 mg of chloroquine base, how many tablets are required?
Answer: C. Three tablets
Explanation: 600 mg ÷ 200 mg per tablet = 3 tablets. Always distinguish the active base from the amount of the salt when calculating doses.
255. Thiazide diuretics may increase blood levels of uric acid and:
Answer: D. Glucose
Explanation: Thiazide diuretics can cause hyperuricemia and may also increase blood glucose in susceptible patients.
256. Which anti-amoebic drug has significant activity against intestinal cysts?
Answer: B. Diloxanide furoate
Explanation: Diloxanide furoate is a luminal amoebicide used to eradicate intestinal Entamoeba histolytica cysts.
257. If one unit of penicillin G sodium corresponds to 0.6 micrograms, what is the weight of 400,000 units?
Answer: A. 240 mg
Explanation: 400,000 × 0.6 micrograms = 240,000 micrograms = 240 mg.
258. Epidemiology is the study of:
Answer: C. Distribution and determinants of health and disease in populations
Explanation: Epidemiology examines the distribution, causes and determinants of health-related conditions in populations.
259. Which drug is commonly recommended to be taken with food containing fat to improve absorption?
Answer: C. Griseofulvin
Explanation: Food, particularly a meal containing fat, can increase the absorption of griseofulvin.
260. The approximate energy value of dietary fat is:
Answer: C. 9 kcal/g
Explanation: Dietary fat provides approximately 9 kcal per gram.
261. Which is NOT normally a major criterion for selecting essential medicines?
Answer: D. Tablet color
Explanation: Essential medicines are selected according to health needs, evidence of efficacy and safety, quality, availability and affordability.
262. Which is NOT normally a sufficient criterion for banning a medicine?
Answer: C. High price alone
Explanation: Regulatory decisions depend on factors such as safety, efficacy, quality, misuse and benefit-risk considerations. Price alone does not necessarily justify a ban.
263. Which medicine has historically been subject to restrictions because of serious safety concerns?
Answer: B. Phenylbutazone
Explanation: Phenylbutazone can cause serious adverse effects, including blood dyscrasias, and has therefore been restricted in many settings.
264. Pharmacy shop registration requirements should be checked under:
Answer: A. Current Nepalese drug regulations
Explanation: Pharmacy registration requirements are governed by applicable national drug legislation and regulations. Students should verify the current official requirements.
265. A person wishing to challenge a regulatory decision should use:
Answer: A. The appropriate legal appeal mechanism
Explanation: Appeals against regulatory decisions must follow the procedure and authority specified by the applicable law.
266. A domestic pharmaceutical manufacturer requires:
Answer: C. Required manufacturing, product-registration and other applicable approvals
Explanation: Pharmaceutical manufacturing and marketing involve several regulatory requirements. Exact requirements depend on the product and current Nepalese regulations.
267. Failure to maintain required records for controlled or narcotic medicines may result in:
Answer: A. Regulatory or legal penalties
Explanation: Controlled medicines require accurate records and accountability. Non-compliance can result in regulatory or legal consequences.
268. Professional prerogatives refer to:
Answer: A. Rights and privileges associated with professional practice
Explanation: Professional prerogatives relate to the rights, responsibilities and scope of practice associated with a recognized profession.
269. Niclosamide is mainly used for the treatment of:
Answer: A. Tapeworm infections
Explanation: Niclosamide is an anthelmintic used against certain intestinal cestode infections. Dosing depends on the specific parasite and current treatment recommendations.
270. The sterilization cycle for surgical materials depends on:
Answer: C. A validated combination of temperature, exposure time and other parameters
Explanation: Steam sterilization cycles are validated combinations of temperature, pressure, exposure time and other process parameters. The cycle must achieve the required sterility assurance level.
271. A common symptom of digoxin toxicity is:
Answer: C. Nausea
Explanation: Nausea and vomiting are common manifestations of digoxin toxicity. Visual disturbances and cardiac arrhythmias can also occur.
272. If medicine demand is irregular and difficult to predict, stockout risk can be reduced by:
Answer: C. Maintaining appropriate safety stock
Explanation: Safety stock provides a buffer against demand variability and supply delays. The appropriate quantity should be determined using inventory data.
273. Which dosage form should generally NOT be crushed for administration through an NG tube?
Answer: B. Enteric-coated tablet
Explanation: Crushing an enteric-coated dosage form can destroy its protective coating and alter drug release or stability.
274. Which route has the greatest potential for a first-pass hepatic effect?
Answer: C. Oral
Explanation: Drugs absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract commonly pass through the portal circulation to the liver before reaching systemic circulation.
275. The abbreviation q2h means:
Answer: C. Every two hours
Explanation: q2h means every two hours. Clear wording is preferred in modern prescribing practice to reduce medication errors.
More Nepal Pharmacy Council Study Materials
For additional practice questions, use the following related articles from this website:
Nepal Pharmacy Council Model Questions – Part 1
Nepal Pharmacy Council Model Questions – Part 2
Nepal Pharmacy Council Past Questions
Nepal Pharmacy Council Past Questions – Part 2
Pharmaceutical Analysis MCQs for Nepal Pharmacy Council Examination
50 Important Pharmaceutical Analysis MCQs with Answers
If you are interested in pharmaceutical quality control, you can also read Quality Control Tests of Tablets in the Pharmaceutical Industry.
Conclusion
Regular MCQ practice can help pharmacy students identify weak areas before the Nepal Pharmacy Council licensing examination. However, memorizing answers alone is not sufficient. Understanding the explanation behind each answer can improve retention and help students apply pharmaceutical concepts.
Use these questions as a revision resource together with standard pharmacy textbooks, current Nepalese regulations and official Nepal Pharmacy Council information.
Disclaimer: This article is provided for educational and examination-preparation purposes only. It is not an official Nepal Pharmacy Council question paper and should not be considered medical, legal or regulatory advice. Drug information, professional requirements and regulatory provisions may change over time. Always verify important information using current official sources and qualified professionals.
Have a question, suggestion, or feedback? Feel free to leave a comment below. Please keep your comments respectful and relevant to the topic.