Nepal Pharmacy Council Website Model Question with answer for bachelor in pharmacy license exam
201. The Kjeldhal method is used for the determination of:
a.Oxygen
b.Nitrogen
c. Sulphur
d. Chlorine
202. The UV range in spectrophotometer lies between:
a.200-400nm
b.200-800 nm
c. 380-580 nm
d. 185-380 nm
203. The difference between measured value and true value is known as:
a.Linearity
b.Accuracy
c. Robustness
d. Precision
204. Spectrophotometric Analysis is based on:
a. Boil's Law
b. Dalton's Law
c. Molecular Vibrations
d. Bear's –Lambert's Law
205. Which Silver compound is used for the determination of Chloride ions?
a .AgI
b. AgBr
c. AgF
d. AgNO3.
206. Which of the following is used as an indicator for the titration between iodine and sodium
thiosulphate solution?
a.Potassium chromate
b.Phenolphthalein
c. Methyl orange
d. Starch solution
207. In infrared spectra, the "OH" absorption band is visible:
a. Below 1000 cm-1
b. Above 3500 cm-1
c. Below1800 cm-1
d. Just below 3000 cm-1
208. . The concentration of Methylparaben as a preservative in SyrupSyrup is:
a. 0.01 to 0.3 %.
b. 0.1 to 0.3 %.
c. 1.0 to 2.0 %
d. 2.0 to 5.0 %.
209. The yellow shade to the pharmaceutical dosage form is given by:
a. Alazarin
b. Tartrazine
c. Turmeric powder
d. Sunset Yellow
210. Which one of the following drugs is relatively safer in pregnancy?
a. Metformin
b. Ranitidine
c. Acyclovir
d. Glibenclamide
211. If the Hepatic metabolism is not changed and the volume of distribution is increased, the …..
a. Dosing interval should be increased
b. Dosing interval should be decreased
c. Dose should be increased
d. Dose should be decreased
212. One cannot use a size "O" suture for
a. Foot skin
b. Scalp skin
c. Abdomen skin
d. Face skin
213. Which of the following drugs is not contraindicated to the patient on Warfarin?
a. Aspirin
b. Phenytoin
c. Diclofenac
d. Allopurinol
214. When a patient is taking Ceftriaxone, which of the following medications is contraindicated?
a. Fluoxetine
b. Tamsulosin
c. Calcium gluconate
d. Potassium chloride
215. The lowest sweetening intensity in the following list is:
a. Sorbitol
b. Aspartame
c. Saccharine
d. Sucralose
216. All of the following are the ingredients of an effervescent Tablet except:
a. Tannic acid
b. Sodium bicarbonate
c. Citric acid
d. Tartaric acid
217. The fractional force in a loose powder or granules can be measured by:
a. Micrometer
b. Hauser's ratio
c. Rheology
d. Angle of repose
218. During metronidazole tablet compression, your operator complains that the product sticks within the letter's logos on the punch face; one of the remedies is:
a. Reduction of Compression force
b. Heating the punches
c. Addition of lubricants
d. Polish the punches
219. Sodium Metabisulfite in liquid dosage form is used as:
a. Sweetening agent
b. Buffering agent
c. Antioxidant
d. Coloring agent
220. All of the following colors are available in powder form except:
a. Caramel
b. Erythrosine
c. Amaranth
d. Sun Set yellow
221. Long-term stability study is carried out at -------------- temperature:
a. 40° C
b. 30° C
c. 37° C
d. 26° C
222. All of the following are used as tablet disintegrants except:
a. Starch
b. Gelatin
c. Microcrystalline Cellulose
d. Sodium Starch Glycolate
223. One of the following compounds is not necessary for manufacturing an ointment :
a. Cetosteryl Alcohol
b. Liquid Parafine
c. Tartrazine
d. Propylene Glycol
224. Anhydrous lanoline is used to prepare the ------ base.
a. Water soluble
b. Emulsion.
c. Water washable
d. Absorption
225. One of the following chemical processes is not responsible for the instability of dosage forms:
a. Decantation
b. Sedimentation
c. Hydrolysis
d. Oxidation
226. Homogenization is required for:
a.Liniment
b.Emulsion
c. SyrupSyrup
d. Suspension
227. Which of the oral products is subject to microbial tests?
a. Antacid Suspension
b. Haematinic Syrup
c. Cough Syrup
d. Calamine Lotion
228. The pH of purified Water used for manufacturing oral and dermatological should not be less than:
a. 4.0
b. 5.0
c. 5.5
d. 7.0
229. Sodium EDTA is used in liquid Preparation as :
a. Antioxidant
b. Preservative
c. Chelating agents
d. Buffering agent
230. As per WHO GMP principles, the authorized has the responsibility of ensuring
a. Quality Policy
b. Quality Assurance
c. Quality Control
d. Quality Product Release
231. To manufacture aseptically prepared pharmaceutical preparations, which grade of cleanliness (WHO/GMP) is required for the filling process?
a. Grade B
b. Grade A
c. Grade D
d. Grade C
232. Which of the following covers the various aspects of a Quality Management System?
a. ISO 9000
b. ISO 31000
c. ISO 14000
d. ISO 45001
233. The prosecution of cases under the Drug Act 2035 is the duty of …
a. Police inspector
b. Drug Inspector
c. Public Prosecutor
d. Director General of DDA
234.The maximum penalty for selling expired medicines if the expired drug is unlikely to cause harm to health.
a. Up to life imprisonment and a fine.
b. Up to 10 years of imprisonment and a fine.
c. Up to 5 years imprisonment and a fine.
d. Up to three years in prison and/or a fine of up to Rs.25,000.
235. As defined in the manufacturing process, the Addition of all or a part of previous batches that meet the necessary quality to a new batch is termed as
a. Reworking
b. Recovery
c. Reprocessing
d. Reconciliation
236. What review may not be included in the Quality Product Review?
a. Critical in-process control
b. Total time taken for batch processing
c. Batches that failed to meet specifications
d. Quality-related returns, complaints, and recalls
237. The provision of section 26 of the Drugs Act, 2035 is…..
a. Trademark
b. Clinical trial
c. Drug price
d. Prohibition of drug
238. Which practices does a pharmacist registration in the pharmacy council not require?
a. To work in a regulatory authority
b. To work in the retail pharmacy
c. To work in pharmaceutical quality control
d. Work on drug logistics and procurement
239. Classification of the drug is given in………………..
a. Drug registration regulation
b. Drug inspection regulation
c. Drug standard regulation
d. Drug Consultative Committee Regulation
240. The drug's apparent volume of distribution (t1/2 = 6 hours), whose 120 mg IV bolus dose produces two mcg/ml plasma concentration after 12 hours, is:
a. 60 litre
b. 15 litre
c. 15 ml
d. 60 ml
241. A primary reason for most of the patient's non-compliance using SSRIs like Fluoxetine is:
a. takes several weeks to show effects
b. weight gain and sexual dysfunction
c. dizziness, nervousness, confusion
d. short-term memory loss
242. Which one of the following is a clinically significant metabolic microsomal enzyme inducer?
a. Cimetidine
b. Ketoconazole
c. Rifampicin
d. Isoniazide
243. Infection by Helicobacter pylori, a short, spiral-shaped, gram-negative bacillus, is the leading cause of Peptic Ulcer Disease (PUD) and is associated with virtually all ulcers not induced by NSAIDs. The best treatment regimen among the following is:
a. Ciprofloxacin 500 mg/ Lansoprazole 30 mg/ Amoxicillin 500 mg BID x 10 days
b. Penicillin V 500 mg/ Lansoprazole 30 mg/ Clarithromycin 500 mg BID x 14 days
c. Omeprazole 20 mg/ Clarithromycin 500 mg/ Amoxicillin 500 mg BID x 10 days
d. Omeprazole 20 mg/ Clindamycin 500 mg/ Amoxicillin 500 mg BID x 14 days
244. A prescription reads Amoxicillin 500 mg/5ml, 1 tsp tid x 7 days. You only have 250 mg/5ml strength of 250 ml bottle of Amoxicillin. How much will you dispense 250mg/5ml of Amoxicillin suspension, and how will you advise the patient to take it?
a. one bottle; Take 5 ml three times a day and discard the rest
b. one bottle; Take 10 ml three times a day for seven days and discard the rest
c. two bottles; take 15 ml three times a day for seven days and discard the rest
d. three bottles; Take 30 ml three times a day for seven days and discard the rest
245. Which of the following questions should be asked while dispensing a cold tablet?
a. Whether the patient has asthma
b. Whether the patient has high blood pressure
c. Whether the patient has peptic ulcer disease
d. Whether the patient has hypothyroidism
246. The daily calorie requirement for TPN is ….
a. 5-15 Kcal/kg/day
b. 25-35 Kcal/kg/day
c. 15-25 Kcal/kg/day
d. 45-55 Kcal/kg/day
247. Increase in USP designation of suture (2-0, 3-0…) indicates…..
a.Decrease in diameter
b.Increase in length
c. Increase in diameter
d. Decrease in length
248. Which of the following advice is more important for the patient while dispensing Cotrimoxazole?
a. Take after food
b. Take one hour before food
c. Take plenty of water
d. Do not chew the tablet
249. Crystalluria and nephrotoxicity may occur if -------------- is used concomitantly with
Acetazolamide:
a. Tolbutamide
b. Zudovudine
c. Ciprofloxacin
d. Carbamazepine
250. Which of the following represents a phase II drug metabolizing reaction?
a. Acetylation
b. Hydrolysis
c. Deamination
d. Oxidation
251. Alkalization of the urine accelerates the excretion of
a. Weakly basic drugs
b. strong electrolytes
c. weakly acidic drugs
d. non-polar drugs
252. A drug's therapeutic index evaluates its.......
a. efficacy
b. potency
c. Safety
d. dose variability
253. Which one of the following dosage forms does not necessarily require a sterility test?
a. Eye drop
b. Eye ointment
c. Eardrop
d. Rectal suppository
254. An initial dose of Chloroquine is 600mg base. A chloroquin sulfate tablet contains 200mg in each tablet. How many tablets should be given for the above initial Dose?
a. two tablets
b. four tablets
c. three tablets
d. ten tablets
255. Thiazide diuretics may produce an increase in blood levels of uric acid and …………….
a. Potassium
b. Urea
c. Magnesium
d. Glucose
256. An anti-amoebic agent with highly significant action against cysts in the colon is:
a. Emetine
b. Diloxamide furoate
c. Chloroquine
d. Metronidazole
257. One unit of penicillin G Sodium is contained in 0.6 mcg of the penicillin. What is the weight of 400000 units?
a. 240mg
b. 125mg
c. 2400mg
d. 250mg
258. Epidemiology is the study of …….
a. Immunization
b. Genetic disease
c. Outbreak of disease in populations
d. Skin ailments
259. Which drugs should be best taken with milk or milk products?
a. Erythromycin
b. Minocycline
c. Griseofulvin
d. Chloroquine
260. The calorie value of lipids is…….
a. 6.0 Kcal/g
b. 15.0 Kcal/g
c. 9.0 Kcal/g
d. 12.0 Kcal/g
261. Which of the following is not the criteria for selecting essential medicines?
a. Price
b. Safety
c. Availability
d. Dose
262. Which one of the following is not a criterion for banning a drug?
a. Harmful
b. Irrational combination
c. Expensive
d. Misuse or abuse of drug
263. Which of the following drugs is banned in Nepal?
a. Morphine
b. Phenylbutazone
c. Metamizole
d. Ergometrine
264. Pharmacy shop registration is related to…………………….. of Drug Registration Regulation, 2038.
a. Schedule 7
b. Schedule 9
c. Schedule 8
d. Schedule 10
265. Where can a person file a complaint against the verdict of a Drug Administrator?
a. Health & Population Secretary
b. Appellate Court
c. District Court
d. Health Minister
266. How many licenses shall be obtained from DDA to bring a product into the market by a domestic manufacturer?
a. One
b. Three
c. Two
d. Four
267. Which of the following is the maximum penalty if someone does not keep a record of selling narcotic medicines?
a. Up to one year and/or Rs. 5000 fine
b. Up to 10 years and fine
c. Up to 5 years and fine
d. Up to life imprisonment
268. What do you understand by professional prerogatives
a. Rights and choices
b. Boundaries of Power
c. Power and societal interest
d. Social acknowledgment
269. The standard Dose of Niclosamide for tapeworms is
a. 2 gm single dose in the evening after the meal
b. One gm followed by another one gram in the morning
c. One gram in the morning and one gram in the evening after meal
d. two gms in the morning as a single Dose
270. What is the time cycle if any surgical material is sterilized at 135°C?
a. 30 minutes
b.10 minutes
c. 15 minutes
d. 3 minutes
271. One of the common symptoms of digoxin toxicity is associated with
a. Constipation
b. Tachycardia
c. Nausea
d. Severe headache
272. If demand is not uniform and consistent, stockout risks can be managed by
a. increasing the EOQ
b. raising selling price to reduce demand
c. adding safety stock
d. placing an extra order
273. Which of the following dosage forms cannot be used for the patient on NG tube feeding?
a. Film-coated tablets
b. Enteric-coated tablets
c. Sugar-coated tablet
d. Dispersible tablets
274. Which medication method has the highest chance of producing the first-pass effect?
a. Sublingual
b. Transdermal
c. Oral
d. Intramuscular
275. Which of the following is the meaning of the abbreviation q2h?
a. Two times a day
b. Quarter past two
c. Every two hours
d. Two hours before sleep
3. The Nepalese National Formulary does not contain
a. Preparation
b.Mechanism of action
c. Price
d. Dose
4. While selling or distributing IV fluids, a pharmacist cannot check for…..
a. Leakage
b. Particles
c. Pyrogen
d. Expiry date
5. Patient on …………………….may shows unusual behavior.
a. Carbamazepine
b. Terfenadine
c. Hydrocortisone
d. Digoxin
6………..compares the cost of two or more alternatives, assuming equal outcomes for each alternative.
a. Cost Minimization Analysis
b. Cost Effectiveness Analysis
c. Cost Benefit Analysis
d. Cost-Utility Analysis
7. DALYs stands for ………………..
a. Daily Adjusted Life Years
b. Disability Adjusted Life Years
c. Daily Advanced Life Years
d. Disability and Advanced Life Years
8. A pharmacist should suggest taking plenty of Water while dispensing……………
a. Chlorpheniramine
b. Cotrimoxazole
c. Promethazine
d. Loperamide
9. How many milligrams of penicillin are required to make 120 g of penicillin ointment with 1000 units per gram (1 unit = 0.6 mcg)?
a. 72mg
b. 7.2mg
c. 144mg
d. 0.72gm
10. All of the following are the main areas of body language, except
a. Posture
b. Proximity and orientation
c. Eye contact
d. Literacy
11. What information should be covered through the first prime question during patient
counseling?
a. Dosing schedule
b. Purpose of the medication
c. Storage recommendation
d. Possible side effects
12. Which of the following is not the method to monitor Adverse Drug Reaction (ADR)?
a. Spontaneous reporting
b. Case control studies
c. Active surveillance
d. True experimental studies
13. Which of the following pregnancy risk category drugs is safe in pregnancy?
a. Category A
b. Category C
c. Category B
d. Category X
14. All of the following are the Millennium Development Goals except
a. Eradicating extreme poverty and hunger
b. Achieving universal primary education
c. Improve adolescent health
d. Ensuring environmental sustainability
15. Prescription is considered incomplete if any of the following information is missing except
a. Name, address, Age, sex of the patient
b.Instruction to the patient
c. Dispenser's Name and location of the pharmacy
d. Prescriber's name, Council registration no., signature, and Date
16. All of the following are the reasons for the high demand for health insurance, except
a. High cost of health
b. Modern technology
c. High cost of leaving
d. High cost of investigation
17. All of the following are the causes of pharmaceutical market failure except
a. Informational imbalance
b. Affordability
c. Failure of competition
d. Equity
18. Dopamine is biosynthesized from…….
a.L-alanine
b.L-phenylalanine
c. L-tyrosine
d. L-DOPA
19. Which of the following will NOT alter the volume of distribution of a drug?
a. Cardiac Failure
b. Age
c. Clearance
d. Burns
20. The incubation period for sterility testing is
a. seven days
b. 14 days
c. ten days
d. 21 days
21. Thermolabile materials are sterilized by
a. Dry heat sterilization
b. Membrane filtration
c. Moist heat sterilization
d. Radiation
22. Normal laboratory value of cholesterol is ……..
a. Less than 250mg/dl
b. Less than 150mg/dl
c. Less than 200mg/dl
d. Less than 100/dl
23. Abbreviation "mitte" stands for…….
a. Recipe
b. Meter
c. Send
d. Calculate
24. What do you mean by enema?
a. Aqueous or oily solution or suspension intended for rectal administration
b. Aqueous or greasy suspension or solution meant to be administered vaginally
c. Usually in concentrated form, intended to treat the membranous lining of the throat
d. Usually in concentrated form, intended for the treatment of skin
25. What do you mean by the abbreviation HS?
a. At bedtime
b. Immediately
c. Between meals
d. In the afternoon
26. Which of the following anti-hypertensive is not normally used in hypertension?
a. Diltiazem
b. Tamsulosin
c. Amlodipine
d. Nifedipine
Nepal Pharmacy Council Website Model Question with Answer Part-1
201. The Kjeldhal method is used for the determination of:
a.Oxygen
b.Nitrogen
c. Sulphur
d. Chlorine
202. The UV range in spectrophotometer lies between:
a.200-400nm
b.200-800 nm
c. 380-580 nm
d. 185-380 nm
203. The difference between measured value and true value is known as:
a.Linearity
b.Accuracy
c. Robustness
d. Precision
204. Spectrophotometric Analysis is based on:
a. Boil's Law
b. Dalton's Law
c. Molecular Vibrations
d. Bear's –Lambert's Law
205. Which Silver compound is used for the determination of Chloride ions?
a .AgI
b. AgBr
c. AgF
d. AgNO3.
206. Which of the following is used as an indicator for the titration between iodine and sodium
thiosulphate solution?
a.Potassium chromate
b.Phenolphthalein
c. Methyl orange
d. Starch solution
207. In infrared spectra, the "OH" absorption band is visible:
a. Below 1000 cm-1
b. Above 3500 cm-1
c. Below1800 cm-1
d. Just below 3000 cm-1
208. . The concentration of Methylparaben as a preservative in SyrupSyrup is:
a. 0.01 to 0.3 %.
b. 0.1 to 0.3 %.
c. 1.0 to 2.0 %
d. 2.0 to 5.0 %.
209. The yellow shade to the pharmaceutical dosage form is given by:
a. Alazarin
b. Tartrazine
c. Turmeric powder
d. Sunset Yellow
210. Which one of the following drugs is relatively safer in pregnancy?
a. Metformin
b. Ranitidine
c. Acyclovir
d. Glibenclamide
211. If the Hepatic metabolism is not changed and the volume of distribution is increased, the …..
a. Dosing interval should be increased
b. Dosing interval should be decreased
c. Dose should be increased
d. Dose should be decreased
212. One cannot use a size "O" suture for
a. Foot skin
b. Scalp skin
c. Abdomen skin
d. Face skin
213. Which of the following drugs is not contraindicated to the patient on Warfarin?
a. Aspirin
b. Phenytoin
c. Diclofenac
d. Allopurinol
214. When a patient is taking Ceftriaxone, which of the following medications is contraindicated?
a. Fluoxetine
b. Tamsulosin
c. Calcium gluconate
d. Potassium chloride
215. The lowest sweetening intensity in the following list is:
a. Sorbitol
b. Aspartame
c. Saccharine
d. Sucralose
216. All of the following are the ingredients of an effervescent Tablet except:
a. Tannic acid
b. Sodium bicarbonate
c. Citric acid
d. Tartaric acid
217. The fractional force in a loose powder or granules can be measured by:
a. Micrometer
b. Hauser's ratio
c. Rheology
d. Angle of repose
218. During metronidazole tablet compression, your operator complains that the product sticks within the letter's logos on the punch face; one of the remedies is:
a. Reduction of Compression force
b. Heating the punches
c. Addition of lubricants
d. Polish the punches
219. Sodium Metabisulfite in liquid dosage form is used as:
a. Sweetening agent
b. Buffering agent
c. Antioxidant
d. Coloring agent
220. All of the following colors are available in powder form except:
a. Caramel
b. Erythrosine
c. Amaranth
d. Sun Set yellow
221. Long-term stability study is carried out at -------------- temperature:
a. 40° C
b. 30° C
c. 37° C
d. 26° C
222. All of the following are used as tablet disintegrants except:
a. Starch
b. Gelatin
c. Microcrystalline Cellulose
d. Sodium Starch Glycolate
223. One of the following compounds is not necessary for manufacturing an ointment :
a. Cetosteryl Alcohol
b. Liquid Parafine
c. Tartrazine
d. Propylene Glycol
224. Anhydrous lanoline is used to prepare the ------ base.
a. Water soluble
b. Emulsion.
c. Water washable
d. Absorption
225. One of the following chemical processes is not responsible for the instability of dosage forms:
a. Decantation
b. Sedimentation
c. Hydrolysis
d. Oxidation
226. Homogenization is required for:
a.Liniment
b.Emulsion
c. SyrupSyrup
d. Suspension
227. Which of the oral products is subject to microbial tests?
a. Antacid Suspension
b. Haematinic Syrup
c. Cough Syrup
d. Calamine Lotion
228. The pH of purified Water used for manufacturing oral and dermatological should not be less than:
a. 4.0
b. 5.0
c. 5.5
d. 7.0
229. Sodium EDTA is used in liquid Preparation as :
a. Antioxidant
b. Preservative
c. Chelating agents
d. Buffering agent
230. As per WHO GMP principles, the authorized has the responsibility of ensuring
a. Quality Policy
b. Quality Assurance
c. Quality Control
d. Quality Product Release
231. To manufacture aseptically prepared pharmaceutical preparations, which grade of cleanliness (WHO/GMP) is required for the filling process?
a. Grade B
b. Grade A
c. Grade D
d. Grade C
232. Which of the following covers the various aspects of a Quality Management System?
a. ISO 9000
b. ISO 31000
c. ISO 14000
d. ISO 45001
233. The prosecution of cases under the Drug Act 2035 is the duty of …
a. Police inspector
b. Drug Inspector
c. Public Prosecutor
d. Director General of DDA
234.The maximum penalty for selling expired medicines if the expired drug is unlikely to cause harm to health.
a. Up to life imprisonment and a fine.
b. Up to 10 years of imprisonment and a fine.
c. Up to 5 years imprisonment and a fine.
d. Up to three years in prison and/or a fine of up to Rs.25,000.
235. As defined in the manufacturing process, the Addition of all or a part of previous batches that meet the necessary quality to a new batch is termed as
a. Reworking
b. Recovery
c. Reprocessing
d. Reconciliation
236. What review may not be included in the Quality Product Review?
a. Critical in-process control
b. Total time taken for batch processing
c. Batches that failed to meet specifications
d. Quality-related returns, complaints, and recalls
237. The provision of section 26 of the Drugs Act, 2035 is…..
a. Trademark
b. Clinical trial
c. Drug price
d. Prohibition of drug
238. Which practices does a pharmacist registration in the pharmacy council not require?
a. To work in a regulatory authority
b. To work in the retail pharmacy
c. To work in pharmaceutical quality control
d. Work on drug logistics and procurement
239. Classification of the drug is given in………………..
a. Drug registration regulation
b. Drug inspection regulation
c. Drug standard regulation
d. Drug Consultative Committee Regulation
240. The drug's apparent volume of distribution (t1/2 = 6 hours), whose 120 mg IV bolus dose produces two mcg/ml plasma concentration after 12 hours, is:
a. 60 litre
b. 15 litre
c. 15 ml
d. 60 ml
241. A primary reason for most of the patient's non-compliance using SSRIs like Fluoxetine is:
a. takes several weeks to show effects
b. weight gain and sexual dysfunction
c. dizziness, nervousness, confusion
d. short-term memory loss
242. Which one of the following is a clinically significant metabolic microsomal enzyme inducer?
a. Cimetidine
b. Ketoconazole
c. Rifampicin
d. Isoniazide
243. Infection by Helicobacter pylori, a short, spiral-shaped, gram-negative bacillus, is the leading cause of Peptic Ulcer Disease (PUD) and is associated with virtually all ulcers not induced by NSAIDs. The best treatment regimen among the following is:
a. Ciprofloxacin 500 mg/ Lansoprazole 30 mg/ Amoxicillin 500 mg BID x 10 days
b. Penicillin V 500 mg/ Lansoprazole 30 mg/ Clarithromycin 500 mg BID x 14 days
c. Omeprazole 20 mg/ Clarithromycin 500 mg/ Amoxicillin 500 mg BID x 10 days
d. Omeprazole 20 mg/ Clindamycin 500 mg/ Amoxicillin 500 mg BID x 14 days
244. A prescription reads Amoxicillin 500 mg/5ml, 1 tsp tid x 7 days. You only have 250 mg/5ml strength of 250 ml bottle of Amoxicillin. How much will you dispense 250mg/5ml of Amoxicillin suspension, and how will you advise the patient to take it?
a. one bottle; Take 5 ml three times a day and discard the rest
b. one bottle; Take 10 ml three times a day for seven days and discard the rest
c. two bottles; take 15 ml three times a day for seven days and discard the rest
d. three bottles; Take 30 ml three times a day for seven days and discard the rest
245. Which of the following questions should be asked while dispensing a cold tablet?
a. Whether the patient has asthma
b. Whether the patient has high blood pressure
c. Whether the patient has peptic ulcer disease
d. Whether the patient has hypothyroidism
246. The daily calorie requirement for TPN is ….
a. 5-15 Kcal/kg/day
b. 25-35 Kcal/kg/day
c. 15-25 Kcal/kg/day
d. 45-55 Kcal/kg/day
247. Increase in USP designation of suture (2-0, 3-0…) indicates…..
a.Decrease in diameter
b.Increase in length
c. Increase in diameter
d. Decrease in length
248. Which of the following advice is more important for the patient while dispensing Cotrimoxazole?
a. Take after food
b. Take one hour before food
c. Take plenty of water
d. Do not chew the tablet
249. Crystalluria and nephrotoxicity may occur if -------------- is used concomitantly with
Acetazolamide:
a. Tolbutamide
b. Zudovudine
c. Ciprofloxacin
d. Carbamazepine
250. Which of the following represents a phase II drug metabolizing reaction?
a. Acetylation
b. Hydrolysis
c. Deamination
d. Oxidation
251. Alkalization of the urine accelerates the excretion of
a. Weakly basic drugs
b. strong electrolytes
c. weakly acidic drugs
d. non-polar drugs
252. A drug's therapeutic index evaluates its.......
a. efficacy
b. potency
c. Safety
d. dose variability
253. Which one of the following dosage forms does not necessarily require a sterility test?
a. Eye drop
b. Eye ointment
c. Eardrop
d. Rectal suppository
254. An initial dose of Chloroquine is 600mg base. A chloroquin sulfate tablet contains 200mg in each tablet. How many tablets should be given for the above initial Dose?
a. two tablets
b. four tablets
c. three tablets
d. ten tablets
255. Thiazide diuretics may produce an increase in blood levels of uric acid and …………….
a. Potassium
b. Urea
c. Magnesium
d. Glucose
256. An anti-amoebic agent with highly significant action against cysts in the colon is:
a. Emetine
b. Diloxamide furoate
c. Chloroquine
d. Metronidazole
257. One unit of penicillin G Sodium is contained in 0.6 mcg of the penicillin. What is the weight of 400000 units?
a. 240mg
b. 125mg
c. 2400mg
d. 250mg
258. Epidemiology is the study of …….
a. Immunization
b. Genetic disease
c. Outbreak of disease in populations
d. Skin ailments
259. Which drugs should be best taken with milk or milk products?
a. Erythromycin
b. Minocycline
c. Griseofulvin
d. Chloroquine
260. The calorie value of lipids is…….
a. 6.0 Kcal/g
b. 15.0 Kcal/g
c. 9.0 Kcal/g
d. 12.0 Kcal/g
261. Which of the following is not the criteria for selecting essential medicines?
a. Price
b. Safety
c. Availability
d. Dose
262. Which one of the following is not a criterion for banning a drug?
a. Harmful
b. Irrational combination
c. Expensive
d. Misuse or abuse of drug
263. Which of the following drugs is banned in Nepal?
a. Morphine
b. Phenylbutazone
c. Metamizole
d. Ergometrine
264. Pharmacy shop registration is related to…………………….. of Drug Registration Regulation, 2038.
a. Schedule 7
b. Schedule 9
c. Schedule 8
d. Schedule 10
265. Where can a person file a complaint against the verdict of a Drug Administrator?
a. Health & Population Secretary
b. Appellate Court
c. District Court
d. Health Minister
266. How many licenses shall be obtained from DDA to bring a product into the market by a domestic manufacturer?
a. One
b. Three
c. Two
d. Four
267. Which of the following is the maximum penalty if someone does not keep a record of selling narcotic medicines?
a. Up to one year and/or Rs. 5000 fine
b. Up to 10 years and fine
c. Up to 5 years and fine
d. Up to life imprisonment
268. What do you understand by professional prerogatives
a. Rights and choices
b. Boundaries of Power
c. Power and societal interest
d. Social acknowledgment
269. The standard Dose of Niclosamide for tapeworms is
a. 2 gm single dose in the evening after the meal
b. One gm followed by another one gram in the morning
c. One gram in the morning and one gram in the evening after meal
d. two gms in the morning as a single Dose
270. What is the time cycle if any surgical material is sterilized at 135°C?
a. 30 minutes
b.10 minutes
c. 15 minutes
d. 3 minutes
271. One of the common symptoms of digoxin toxicity is associated with
a. Constipation
b. Tachycardia
c. Nausea
d. Severe headache
272. If demand is not uniform and consistent, stockout risks can be managed by
a. increasing the EOQ
b. raising selling price to reduce demand
c. adding safety stock
d. placing an extra order
273. Which of the following dosage forms cannot be used for the patient on NG tube feeding?
a. Film-coated tablets
b. Enteric-coated tablets
c. Sugar-coated tablet
d. Dispersible tablets
274. Which medication method has the highest chance of producing the first-pass effect?
a. Sublingual
b. Transdermal
c. Oral
d. Intramuscular
275. Which of the following is the meaning of the abbreviation q2h?
a. Two times a day
b. Quarter past two
c. Every two hours
d. Two hours before sleep
3. The Nepalese National Formulary does not contain
a. Preparation
b.Mechanism of action
c. Price
d. Dose
4. While selling or distributing IV fluids, a pharmacist cannot check for…..
a. Leakage
b. Particles
c. Pyrogen
d. Expiry date
5. Patient on …………………….may shows unusual behavior.
a. Carbamazepine
b. Terfenadine
c. Hydrocortisone
d. Digoxin
6………..compares the cost of two or more alternatives, assuming equal outcomes for each alternative.
a. Cost Minimization Analysis
b. Cost Effectiveness Analysis
c. Cost Benefit Analysis
d. Cost-Utility Analysis
7. DALYs stands for ………………..
a. Daily Adjusted Life Years
b. Disability Adjusted Life Years
c. Daily Advanced Life Years
d. Disability and Advanced Life Years
8. A pharmacist should suggest taking plenty of Water while dispensing……………
a. Chlorpheniramine
b. Cotrimoxazole
c. Promethazine
d. Loperamide
9. How many milligrams of penicillin are required to make 120 g of penicillin ointment with 1000 units per gram (1 unit = 0.6 mcg)?
a. 72mg
b. 7.2mg
c. 144mg
d. 0.72gm
10. All of the following are the main areas of body language, except
a. Posture
b. Proximity and orientation
c. Eye contact
d. Literacy
11. What information should be covered through the first prime question during patient
counseling?
a. Dosing schedule
b. Purpose of the medication
c. Storage recommendation
d. Possible side effects
12. Which of the following is not the method to monitor Adverse Drug Reaction (ADR)?
a. Spontaneous reporting
b. Case control studies
c. Active surveillance
d. True experimental studies
13. Which of the following pregnancy risk category drugs is safe in pregnancy?
a. Category A
b. Category C
c. Category B
d. Category X
14. All of the following are the Millennium Development Goals except
a. Eradicating extreme poverty and hunger
b. Achieving universal primary education
c. Improve adolescent health
d. Ensuring environmental sustainability
15. Prescription is considered incomplete if any of the following information is missing except
a. Name, address, Age, sex of the patient
b.Instruction to the patient
c. Dispenser's Name and location of the pharmacy
d. Prescriber's name, Council registration no., signature, and Date
16. All of the following are the reasons for the high demand for health insurance, except
a. High cost of health
b. Modern technology
c. High cost of leaving
d. High cost of investigation
17. All of the following are the causes of pharmaceutical market failure except
a. Informational imbalance
b. Affordability
c. Failure of competition
d. Equity
18. Dopamine is biosynthesized from…….
a.L-alanine
b.L-phenylalanine
c. L-tyrosine
d. L-DOPA
19. Which of the following will NOT alter the volume of distribution of a drug?
a. Cardiac Failure
b. Age
c. Clearance
d. Burns
20. The incubation period for sterility testing is
a. seven days
b. 14 days
c. ten days
d. 21 days
21. Thermolabile materials are sterilized by
a. Dry heat sterilization
b. Membrane filtration
c. Moist heat sterilization
d. Radiation
22. Normal laboratory value of cholesterol is ……..
a. Less than 250mg/dl
b. Less than 150mg/dl
c. Less than 200mg/dl
d. Less than 100/dl
23. Abbreviation "mitte" stands for…….
a. Recipe
b. Meter
c. Send
d. Calculate
24. What do you mean by enema?
a. Aqueous or oily solution or suspension intended for rectal administration
b. Aqueous or greasy suspension or solution meant to be administered vaginally
c. Usually in concentrated form, intended to treat the membranous lining of the throat
d. Usually in concentrated form, intended for the treatment of skin
25. What do you mean by the abbreviation HS?
a. At bedtime
b. Immediately
c. Between meals
d. In the afternoon
26. Which of the following anti-hypertensive is not normally used in hypertension?
a. Diltiazem
b. Tamsulosin
c. Amlodipine
d. Nifedipine
Nepal Pharmacy Council Website Model Question with Answer Part-1
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