Preparing for the Nepal Pharmacy Council licensing examination requires revision across pharmaceutical analysis, pharmaceutics, pharmacology, pharmacy practice, hospital pharmacy, pharmaceutical chemistry, pharmacognosy and public health.
This article contains 100 Nepal Pharmacy Council model questions with answers and short explanations, covering questions 101 to 200. These questions are intended for educational practice and revision. They should not be considered an official Nepal Pharmacy Council question paper unless directly published by the Council.
For more practice, you can also read Nepal Pharmacy Council Model Questions – Part 1 and Nepal Pharmacy Council Model Questions – Part 3.
101. Mass spectrometry separates ions primarily according to:
Answer: C. Mass-to-charge ratio
Explanation: A mass spectrometer separates and detects ions according to their mass-to-charge ratio (m/z).
102. Which of the following is associated with the back-titration method?
Answer: B. Volhard's method
Explanation: Volhard's method is an argentometric titration that can be performed by back titration, particularly for halide determination.
103. Polarimetry is based on the measurement of:
Answer: D. Optical rotation
Explanation: Polarimetry measures the rotation of plane-polarized light caused by an optically active substance.
104. Which factor is NOT a suitable explanation for a nonlinear calibration curve in spectrophotometry?
Answer: D. Accurate measurement at the absorption maximum
Explanation: Beer-Lambert linearity is improved when measurements are made at a suitable absorption maximum and under appropriate concentration and instrumental conditions.
105. Which statement about HPLC is NOT correct?
Answer: D. It is mainly limited to gaseous samples
Explanation: HPLC is primarily used for liquid-phase separation of compounds that are dissolved in a suitable solvent.
106. In chromatography, peak area is commonly used to determine:
Answer: B. The amount of a component
Explanation: Under validated chromatographic conditions, peak area is generally proportional to the amount or concentration of analyte.
107. NMR spectroscopy provides information mainly about:
Answer: B. Atomic nuclei and their chemical environments
Explanation: NMR detects nuclei with suitable spin properties and provides information about their chemical environments and neighboring atoms.
108. A shift of an absorption maximum toward a longer wavelength is called:
Answer: A. Bathochromic shift
Explanation: A bathochromic shift, or red shift, means that the absorption maximum moves toward a longer wavelength.
109. Which is a protophilic solvent used in non-aqueous titration?
Answer: C. Liquid ammonia
Explanation: Protophilic solvents have the ability to accept protons. Liquid ammonia is a strongly protophilic solvent used in some non-aqueous acid-base titrations.
110. In alkaline conditions, permanganate ion may be reduced to:
Answer: C. Green manganate ion
Explanation: In strongly alkaline conditions, permanganate (MnO₄⁻) can be reduced to manganate (MnO₄²⁻), which is green.
111. The major role in selecting medicines for a hospital is generally played by the:
Answer: A. Drug and Therapeutics Committee
Explanation: The Drug and Therapeutics Committee helps evaluate, select and promote rational use of medicines within a healthcare institution.
112. Which of the following is NOT generally considered a drug-financing mechanism?
Answer: D. Individual clinical diagnosis
Explanation: Drug financing can involve insurance, cost recovery and cost-sharing mechanisms. Diagnosis is a clinical activity rather than a financing scheme.
113. An essential medicine generally has all of the following properties EXCEPT:
Answer: D. Must always be a newly developed molecule
Explanation: Essential medicines are selected according to public-health need, effectiveness, safety, quality and affordability. They do not have to be new medicines.
114. Quality assurance is:
Answer: C. A broad concept covering systematic quality activities
Explanation: Quality assurance is a broad, planned system that provides confidence that products and processes consistently meet established quality requirements.
For more pharmaceutical quality topics, see CAPA in the Pharmaceutical Industry and OOS Investigation in Pharmaceutical Quality Control.
115. Which of the following is generally outside the primary scope of a Drug Act?
Answer: D. Patent rights
Explanation: Drug legislation focuses primarily on medicines, including their quality, safety, efficacy, manufacture, distribution and related regulatory requirements. Patent rights are generally governed by intellectual-property legislation.
116. Marketing authorization of a medicine is issued according to:
Answer: A. Applicable national drug-registration requirements
Explanation: Medicines must receive regulatory authorization according to the applicable national drug-registration system before they can be legally marketed.
117. Drug regulation primarily concerns:
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: Medicine regulation aims to ensure that medicines meet appropriate standards for quality, safety and efficacy.
118. Which body provides advice to the government on drug-related fundamental principles and administrative matters?
Answer: C. Drug Consultative Council
Explanation: Drug-related advisory bodies assist the government in developing and reviewing policies and administrative matters concerning medicines.
119. Narcotic drugs are controlled under:
Answer: B. Narcotic drug control legislation
Explanation: Narcotic and controlled substances are regulated through specific national laws and regulatory systems to prevent misuse and diversion.
120. A national drug policy generally emphasizes:
Answer: C. Quality, safety, availability, affordability and efficacy
Explanation: A comprehensive drug policy aims to promote access to medicines that are safe, effective, good quality and affordable.
121. A pharmacy registration or professional license must be renewed according to:
Answer: A. The applicable regulatory renewal period
Explanation: Professional registration and licensing requirements are determined by the relevant regulatory authority and may change over time. Candidates should check the current official requirements.
122. Early diagnosis and treatment are associated with:
Answer: C. Secondary prevention
Explanation: Secondary prevention aims to detect disease early and provide prompt treatment to reduce progression and complications.
123. Which is NOT usually classified as a broad method of health education?
Answer: D. Manufacturing method
Explanation: Health education commonly uses individual, group and mass approaches to communicate health information.
124. Which is NOT an audio-visual aid?
Answer: D. Written prescription
Explanation: Television and cinema provide audio-visual communication, while a written prescription is primarily a clinical document.
125. The systematic process of deciding what needs to be done, how, by whom and with what resources is called:
Answer: B. Planning
Explanation: Planning establishes objectives and determines the activities, resources and responsibilities required to achieve them.
126. Which is NOT normally a department responsible for health services or medicine regulation?
Answer: C. Department of Homeopathy
Explanation: The exact organizational structure of government departments can change. For examination purposes, students should verify current Nepal government structures from official sources.
127. Which healthcare model is primarily funded through government taxation?
Answer: B. Beveridge model
Explanation: In the Beveridge model, healthcare is primarily funded through taxation and delivered through a government-organized health system.
128. The concept of Primary Health Care was formally declared at:
Answer: B. Alma-Ata Declaration, 1978
Explanation: The 1978 Alma-Ata Declaration established primary health care as a key approach to achieving health for all.
129. A major source of healthcare financing in Nepal has historically been:
Answer: A. Out-of-pocket expenditure
Explanation: Out-of-pocket payments have historically represented a significant portion of healthcare spending in Nepal, although government financing and health-insurance coverage continue to develop.
130. Hib vaccine helps protect against disease caused by:
Answer: B. Haemophilus influenzae type b
Explanation: Hib vaccination protects against invasive disease caused by Haemophilus influenzae type b, including meningitis and some forms of pneumonia.
131. A set of attitudes and behaviors considered appropriate for a particular occupation is called:
Answer: A. Professionalism
Explanation: Professionalism refers to the attitudes, behaviors, ethics and standards expected from members of a profession.
132. Which medicine has historically been associated with restrictions or bans in Nepal?
Answer: B. Phenacetin and its combinations
Explanation: Phenacetin has been restricted or withdrawn in many countries because of serious safety concerns, including analgesic nephropathy. Current Nepalese regulatory status should be checked with the Department of Drug Administration.
133. Narcotic substances in Nepal are controlled under the authority of:
Answer: C. Ministry of Home Affairs and relevant authorities
Explanation: Narcotic control involves government authorities responsible for controlled substances, with responsibilities defined by national legislation.
134. Expired medicines should be disposed of through:
Answer: B. Appropriate authorized pharmaceutical-waste disposal procedures
Explanation: Expired medicines should not enter the general environment. Disposal should follow applicable regulatory and pharmaceutical-waste management procedures.
135. Using another person's words or ideas without giving appropriate credit is called:
Answer: D. Plagiarism
Explanation: Plagiarism occurs when another person's words, ideas or work are presented as one's own without appropriate acknowledgment.
136. The primary objective of an immunization program is to:
Answer: A. Prevent vaccine-preventable diseases
Explanation: Immunization stimulates protective immunity and reduces the risk of infection, disease, complications and transmission.
137. Which of the following is generally NOT a standard medicine-labeling requirement?
Answer: D. Patient's diagnosis
Explanation: Medicine labels contain product-related information such as name, strength, quantity, manufacturer and required warnings. A patient's diagnosis is not normally a product-label requirement.
138. School health programs are generally linked with:
Answer: A. National health policies and programs
Explanation: School health programs are part of broader public-health planning and may involve coordination between health and education sectors.
139. A study in which groups are followed according to exposure to risk factors is called:
Answer: A. Cohort study
Explanation: In a cohort study, participants are grouped according to exposure and followed to observe the occurrence of outcomes.
140. Which is a beta-lactamase inhibitor?
Answer: C. Clavulanic acid
Explanation: Clavulanic acid inhibits certain beta-lactamase enzymes and is commonly combined with amoxicillin to protect the antibiotic from enzymatic degradation.
141. Sodium cromoglycate primarily causes:
Answer: C. Mast-cell stabilization
Explanation: Sodium cromoglycate stabilizes mast cells and reduces the release of inflammatory mediators involved in allergic responses.
142. Crystalluria is a recognized adverse effect associated with:
Answer: A. Sulfonamides
Explanation: Some sulfonamides can crystallize in urine, particularly under conditions that favor precipitation, potentially contributing to renal complications.
143. Which of the following is a female sex hormone?
Answer: B. Estrogen
Explanation: Estrogens are the principal female sex hormones involved in reproductive development and regulation of the menstrual cycle.
144. ICC in a hospital commonly stands for:
Answer: A. Infection Control Committee
Explanation: An Infection Control Committee helps develop, implement and monitor policies for preventing and controlling healthcare-associated infections.
145. The commonly recommended cold-chain temperature for many vaccines is:
Answer: B. 2–8°C
Explanation: Many vaccines are stored at 2–8°C, although storage requirements vary by vaccine. Product-specific instructions must always be followed.
146. Rauwolfia-derived medicines have historically been used in the management of:
Answer: A. Hypertension
Explanation: Rauwolfia contains alkaloids such as reserpine, which historically have been used as antihypertensive agents.
147. A typical anticholinergic adverse effect of atropine is:
Answer: B. Dry mouth
Explanation: Atropine blocks muscarinic receptors and reduces salivary secretion, producing dry mouth. Other effects include blurred vision and urinary retention.
148. Which is an important consideration when determining the appropriate dose of azithromycin?
Answer: A. Patient age and clinical condition
Explanation: Antibiotic dosing depends on factors such as indication, age, weight, renal/hepatic function and the specific treatment regimen. A fixed dose should not be assumed for every patient.
149. Medicine stock with little or no turnover is known as:
Answer: A. Dead inventory
Explanation: Dead inventory refers to stock that has little or no movement or demand for a prolonged period.
150. Which is NOT a typical objective of a Drug Information Service?
Answer: D. Maintaining an unrelated stock register
Explanation: Drug Information Services provide reliable medicine information and support healthcare professionals in rational medicine use.
151. Which medicine may cause serious gastrointestinal complications when misused in certain patients?
Answer: B. Loperamide
Explanation: Excessive doses of loperamide can cause serious toxicity, including gastrointestinal complications and cardiac effects. It should be used according to recommended dosing.
152. How much anhydrous dextrose is required to prepare 50 mL of an isotonic solution containing 0.5% amethocaine, given NaCl equivalents of 0.19 for amethocaine and 0.18 for dextrose?
Answer: B. 2.24 g
Explanation: The calculation uses the sodium chloride equivalent method. The amount of amethocaine contributes to tonicity, and the remaining tonicity requirement is supplied by dextrose.
153. Corticosteroids should not usually be withdrawn abruptly after prolonged therapy because of the risk of:
Answer: A. Adrenal insufficiency
Explanation: Long-term corticosteroid therapy can suppress the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis. Gradual tapering may be required to allow adrenal function to recover.
154. Which is a penicillinase-resistant penicillin?
Answer: A. Cloxacillin
Explanation: Cloxacillin is resistant to many staphylococcal beta-lactamases and belongs to the antistaphylococcal penicillin group.
155. Tapering of the dose is particularly associated with:
Answer: B. Prednisolone
Explanation: Long-term corticosteroid therapy may require gradual dose reduction to minimize the risk of adrenal insufficiency and withdrawal symptoms.
156. Which drug has an important risk of pulmonary toxicity?
Answer: C. Amiodarone
Explanation: Amiodarone can cause pulmonary toxicity, including interstitial pneumonitis and pulmonary fibrosis, particularly with prolonged exposure.
157. The effectiveness of combined oral contraceptives can be reduced by:
Answer: B. Rifampicin
Explanation: Rifampicin strongly induces hepatic drug-metabolizing enzymes and can reduce the concentrations of hormonal contraceptives.
158. Increased blood glucose and anti-inflammatory effects are characteristic actions of:
Answer: C. Cortisol
Explanation: Cortisol increases gluconeogenesis and has broad anti-inflammatory and immunomodulatory effects.
159. Which antitubercular drug can cause a flu-like syndrome?
Answer: A. Rifampicin
Explanation: Rifampicin can cause a flu-like syndrome, particularly with intermittent therapy, and may also produce other important adverse effects.
160. A commonly recommended timing for many conventional antacids is:
Answer: C. Around meals and/or after meals according to the product
Explanation: Antacid dosing varies by formulation. Many conventional antacids are used after meals and at bedtime because symptoms commonly occur during these periods.
161. An item is sold at a retail price of Rs. 16.82 with a 16% profit calculated on the cost/wholesale price. The approximate cost price is:
Answer: D. Approximately Rs. 14.50 if 16.82 represents a 16% markup
Explanation: When the selling price includes a 16% markup on cost, cost = 16.82 ÷ 1.16 ≈ Rs. 14.50. The exact answer depends on whether the question defines the percentage as markup on cost or margin on selling price.
162. Which behavior may indicate difficulty in hearing during communication?
Answer: A. Speaking unusually loudly
Explanation: A person with hearing difficulty may speak loudly because they cannot adequately monitor the volume of their own voice.
163. Which type of communicator generally seeks a mutually acceptable solution?
Answer: A. Assertive communicator
Explanation: Assertive communication expresses needs and opinions clearly while respecting the rights and views of other people.
164. Empathy means:
Answer: C. Understanding another person's situation or feelings
Explanation: Empathy is the ability to understand another person's feelings, perspective or situation and respond appropriately.
165. Rebound nasal congestion is particularly associated with prolonged use of:
Answer: C. Xylometazoline
Explanation: Prolonged use of topical nasal decongestants such as xylometazoline can cause rebound congestion, known as rhinitis medicamentosa.
166. The main focus of pharmaceutical care is:
Answer: C. Patient
Explanation: Pharmaceutical care is patient-centered. Its goal is to identify, prevent and resolve drug-related problems and improve therapeutic outcomes.
167. Healthy human volunteers are primarily used in:
Answer: A. Phase I clinical trials
Explanation: Phase I studies generally evaluate safety, tolerability, pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics, often using healthy volunteers.
168. A drug solution contains 1.25 mg/mL. If the required dose is 80 mg/hour, what volume should be infused per minute?
Answer: B. Approximately 1.07 mL/min
Explanation: Required volume = 80 ÷ 1.25 = 64 mL/hour. Dividing by 60 gives approximately 1.07 mL/min. If a drop factor is given, the corresponding drops/min can then be calculated.
169. Fever, rash and joint or muscle pain after prolonged sulfonamide therapy may suggest:
Answer: B. Type III hypersensitivity
Explanation: Serum sickness-like reactions involving immune complexes are classically associated with Type III hypersensitivity and may cause fever, rash and arthralgia.
170. Which statement about responding to patient symptoms is incorrect?
Answer: D. Symptoms can be accepted without clarification
Explanation: Healthcare professionals should clarify and assess symptoms carefully before recommending treatment.
171. Which of the following is NOT a proton pump inhibitor?
Answer: A. Metronidazole
Explanation: Pantoprazole, omeprazole and esomeprazole are proton pump inhibitors. Metronidazole is an antimicrobial drug.
172. Which is NOT a standard inpatient medicine distribution system?
Answer: C. Patient prescription/order system
Explanation: Common inpatient distribution approaches include floor stock, unit-dose dispensing and other organized medication distribution systems.
173. Which method is commonly used for stock rotation in a pharmacy?
Answer: A. FIFO
Explanation: FIFO means First In, First Out. It helps ensure older stock is issued before newer stock, although expiry-based FEFO is often preferred for medicines.
174. Creatinine clearance is commonly used as an estimate of:
Answer: C. Glomerular filtration rate
Explanation: Creatinine clearance provides an estimate of kidney filtration and is commonly used to assess renal function and guide dosing for some medicines.
175. Which is commonly considered a physical adsorbent used in poisoning management?
Answer: A. Activated charcoal
Explanation: Activated charcoal adsorbs many drugs and chemicals in the gastrointestinal tract and can reduce absorption when used appropriately in selected poisonings.
176. Optical activity causes a compound to:
Answer: B. Rotate plane-polarized light
Explanation: Optically active compounds rotate the plane of polarized light. The direction and magnitude of rotation depend on the substance and conditions.
177. Which technique can be used to determine molecular mass?
Answer: A. Mass spectrometry
Explanation: Mass spectrometry measures ions according to their mass-to-charge ratios and can provide molecular-mass information.
178. Which indicator can be used in complexometric titration of calcium with EDTA?
Answer: C. Eriochrome Black T
Explanation: Eriochrome Black T is a metallochromic indicator used in EDTA complexometric titrations, particularly for certain metal ions under suitable pH conditions.
179. Which is NOT a typical force involved in drug-receptor interactions?
Answer: D. Redox reaction
Explanation: Drug-receptor binding can involve ionic, hydrogen-bonding, hydrophobic, van der Waals and sometimes covalent interactions. Redox reactions are not generally described as a basic receptor-binding force.
180. Oxidation and reduction reactions mainly occur during:
Answer: A. Phase I biotransformation
Explanation: Phase I reactions include oxidation, reduction and hydrolysis. They often introduce or expose functional groups on drug molecules.
181. An adverse drug reaction that increases with increasing dose is generally classified as:
Answer: A. Type A
Explanation: Type A reactions are predictable, dose-related and usually related to the known pharmacological action of the drug.
182. Which is NOT itself a neurotransmitter?
Answer: D. Inositol trisphosphate
Explanation: GABA and acetylcholine are neurotransmitters. NMDA refers to a glutamate receptor subtype, while inositol trisphosphate is an intracellular second messenger.
183. Which is NOT a tricyclic antidepressant?
Answer: B. Fluoxetine
Explanation: Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Trimipramine, amitriptyline and imipramine are tricyclic antidepressants.
184. The specific antagonist for benzodiazepine overdose is:
Answer: D. Flumazenil
Explanation: Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist that can reverse benzodiazepine effects in selected clinical situations.
185. Opium alkaloids are mainly classified as:
Answer: B. Isoquinoline alkaloids
Explanation: Major opium alkaloids such as morphine and codeine are structurally related to the isoquinoline alkaloid group.
186. Which plant contains a pyridine-related alkaloid?
Answer: B. Lobelia
Explanation: Lobelia contains lobeline, an alkaloid structurally related to the pyridine group.
187. Hyoscyamine found in Stramonium belongs to:
Answer: B. Tropane alkaloids
Explanation: Hyoscyamine is a tropane alkaloid with antimuscarinic activity and is associated with plants such as Datura/Stramonium.
188. Which class of compounds contains a seven-membered ring fused with a benzene ring?
Answer: C. Benzodiazepines
Explanation: The benzodiazepine nucleus contains a seven-membered diazepine ring fused to a benzene ring.
189. Which is NOT a metabolite of diazepam?
Answer: B. Lorazepam
Explanation: Diazepam is metabolized to compounds including nordiazepam and temazepam, with oxazepam also formed in the metabolic pathway. Lorazepam is a separate benzodiazepine drug.
190. The specific antidote for significant paracetamol poisoning is:
Answer: B. N-acetylcysteine
Explanation: N-acetylcysteine replenishes hepatic glutathione and helps detoxify the toxic metabolite of paracetamol.
191. Which is an antifolate antitumor drug?
Answer: B. Methotrexate
Explanation: Methotrexate inhibits dihydrofolate reductase and interferes with folate-dependent DNA synthesis, making it an important antifolate drug.
192. Which technique measures the interaction of matter with electromagnetic radiation?
Answer: D. Spectrophotometric techniques
Explanation: Spectroscopic and spectrophotometric techniques study how matter interacts with electromagnetic radiation across different wavelength regions.
193. According to the classical Arrhenius concept, an acid in water produces:
Answer: A. Hydrogen ions
Explanation: An Arrhenius acid increases the concentration of hydrogen ions in aqueous solution.
194. The number of gram-equivalents of solute per litre of solution is:
Answer: A. Normality
Explanation: Normality expresses the number of gram-equivalents of solute present in one litre of solution.
195. Pharmaceutical quality management includes:
Answer: D. QA, QC, GMP and related quality-system activities
Explanation: Pharmaceutical quality management is broader than laboratory testing and includes quality assurance, quality control, GMP and other systematic quality activities.
For more information, see Quality Control Tests of Tablets in Pharmaceutical Industry.
196. Pure water is:
Answer: C. A very weak electrolyte
Explanation: Water undergoes slight self-ionization into hydrogen and hydroxide ions, so pure water behaves as a very weak electrolyte.
197. Phenolphthalein is:
Answer: C. Colorless in acidic solution
Explanation: Phenolphthalein is colorless in acidic and approximately neutral conditions and becomes pink in alkaline solution.
198. In the reaction 4Fe + 3O₂ → 2Fe₂O₃, iron acts as:
Answer: B. Reducing agent
Explanation: Iron loses electrons and is oxidized from Fe to Fe³⁺. Therefore, iron acts as the reducing agent.
199. Ultra-Fast Liquid Chromatography (UFLC) is designed for:
Answer: A. Faster chromatographic separation
Explanation: UFLC systems use optimized high-performance liquid chromatography technology to achieve rapid and efficient separation.
200. The titration involving iodine that is liberated during a reaction and subsequently titrated with a reducing agent is called:
Answer: A. Iodometry
Explanation: In iodometry, iodine liberated during a reaction is commonly titrated with standardized sodium thiosulfate solution.
More Nepal Pharmacy Council Examination Resources
If you are preparing for the Nepal Pharmacy Council licensing examination, do not rely only on MCQ memorization. Review the underlying concepts and use multiple practice sets.
You can continue your preparation with:
Nepal Pharmacy Council Model Questions – Part 1
Nepal Pharmacy Council Model Questions – Part 3
Nepal Pharmacy Council Past Questions
Nepal Pharmacy Council Past Questions – Part 2
Pharmaceutical Analysis MCQs for Nepal Pharmacy Council Examination
50 Important Pharmaceutical Analysis MCQs with Answers
Final Note
These model questions are intended to support examination preparation and concept revision. Some questions from older preparation materials may contain outdated terminology, ambiguous wording or information that can change with current regulations.
For regulatory, legal and clinical topics, always verify the current information using the relevant official Nepalese authorities and current standard textbooks.
Disclaimer: This article is provided for general educational and examination-preparation purposes only. It is not an official Nepal Pharmacy Council question paper and should not be considered medical, legal or regulatory advice. Drug information, regulations and examination requirements may change over time.
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