Nepal Pharmacy Council Website Model Questions with answer (Part-1)

Nepal Pharmacy Council Website  Model Question with answer for bachelor in pharmacy license exam

1. An alcoholic or hydro-alcoholic (more than 60% alcohol) solution of volatile substance is known ………………… 
A. Elixir 
B. Spirit 
C. Gargle 
D. Tincture

2. The introduction of liquid into the rectum via the anus for cleansing, stimulating bowel evacuation, or for other therapeutic or diagnostic purposes is referred to as..........
A. Enemas 
B. Suppositories 
C. Pessaries 
D. Implants

3. ………….... mill is used to reduce the particle size of sticky materials.
A. Rod 
B. Fluid energy 
C. Ball 
D. Pin 

4. If the drug distributes instantly throughout the body, the drug follows ………….compartment model.
A. One 
B. Non 
C. Two 
D. Three


5. ………………. is required to calculate the loading dose:
B. Vd 
C. Clearance 
D. Cpmax

6. BCS class …………. drugs have low solubility and high permeability.
A. I 
B. II 

7. To achieve proper coating, the spray angle should be kept at …………….ยบ with the tablet bed.
A. 60 
B. 45 
C. 30 
D. 90

8. In this glass, the surface is treated with sulfur dioxide; 
A. Type I 
B. Type III 
C. Type II
D. Type IV

9. Hausner's ratio between 1.12-1.18 indicates…
A. Excellent flow
B. Poor flow 
C. Good flow
D. Very Poor flow

10. The central part of a punch that receives compression force from the roller is; 
A. Head 
B. Head flat 
C. Barrel
D. Inside Head angle 

11. During pre-formulation studies, the intrinsic solubility of a drug is measured at…
A. 4°C and 37°C 
B. -4°C and 37°C
C. 8°C and 40°C 
D. -8°C and 40°C

12. Tabletose is: 
A. Starch 
B. Direct compressible starch
C. Direct compressible lactose
D. Dicalcium Phosphate

13. According to I.P., the disintegration time of enteric coated tablet in mixed phosphate buffer( pH 6.8) after testing in 0.1MHCl is;
A. 1 hour 
B. 30 minute
C. 2 hour 
D. 45 minute

14. Which of the following is the absorption base used to make ointment?
A. Hard Soft Paraffin 
B. Polyethylene glycol
C. Anhydrous Lanolin
D. White ointment

15. The area under the serum concentration versus time curve represents
A. Biological half-life
B. Amount of drug cleared by kidneys
C. Amount of drug in original dosage form
D. Amount of drug absorbed

16. PDCA cycle in quality means
A. Prepare, Do, Check, and Act 
B. Perform, Do, Check, and Act
C. Plan, Do, Check and Act
D. Proceed, Do, Check, and Assure

17. Wetting ability of the vehicle is detected by observing…
A. Contact angle 
B. Critical angel 
C.  Angle of repose
D. Carr's index

18. The substance that increases the viscosity of the continuous phase in a suspension is
known as:
A. Suspending agent
B. Flocculating agent
C. Wetting agent
D. Dispersing agents

19. Carr's Consolidation index 5-10% means ……………………. Flow property.
A. Excellent 
B. Good 
C. Fair 
D. Poor

20. …………… is used to cut DNA molecules in rDNA technology
A. Ligase 
B. Ribonuclease
C. Phosphatase 
D.Restriction enzymes

21. PPE in biosafety is …………
A. Public protective equipment
B. Personal Protective Equipment
C. Possible protective equipment
D. Passable protective equipment

22. The Best method for Aspirin Tablet manufacturing is:
A. Wet granulation 
B. Aqueous manual granulation
C. Aqueous autoprocessing 
D. Dry granulation

23. A decrease in moisture content of an empty capsule below 10% can render the capsule………
A. Brittle 
C. Sticky 
D.Color loss

24. Filler is synonymous with........
A. Binder 
B. Disintegrant 
C. Diluents 
D. Glidant

25. In ……………..……., both heat and pressure are used.
A. Digestion 
B. Infusion
C. Decoction 
D. Maceration

26. The ……… provides the alternative route to aromatic compounds, particularly amino acids such as Tyrosine, Tryptophan, etc.
A. Shikimate pathway 
B. Acetate pathway
C. Mevalonate pathway 
D. DOXP pathway

27. Which one is cyanogenic glycoside?
A. Digoxin 
B. Glycyrrhiza 
C. Sennosides 
D. Amygdalin

28. Phenytoin can be synthesized by using;
A. Benzil 
B. Benzoyl chloride 
D. Benzoic acid

29. Which of the following is not a Catecholamine Neurotransmitter?
A. Dopamine 
B. Serotonin 
C. Noradrenalin
D. Adrenaline

30. Dextromethorphane contains the following functional group in its aromatic ring:
A. CH3 
B -OCH3 
C. - O.H. 

31. Pethidine and Procaine both contain N- alkyl radicals, and both are esters; during the first phase of metabolism, N- dealkylation occurs, which is denoted as:
A. Oxidative Reaction 
B. Hydrolysis
C.Reductive Reaction 
D. Electrophilic reaction

32. ---------- acts as antitussive by selectively suppressing cough without narcotic, analgesic, or dependence-inducing properties:
A. Codeine 
B. Noscapine
C. Bromhexine 
D. Pholcodeine

33. Which of the following alkaloids contain the N-atom in the tertiary-amine form (R3N):
A. Morphine 
B. Berberine
C. Ephedrine 
D. Cocaine

34. Which of the following is not an Analeptic stimulant?
A. Doxapram 
B. Nikethamide
C. Amphetamine 
D. Strychnine

35. Which of the following denotes the polyene antibiotic?
A. Nystatin
B. Bacitracin
C. Rifampicin 
D. Chloramphenicol

36. Natural penicillins are strong --------
A. Levorotatory 
B. Enantiomers
C. Racemat 
D. Dextrorotatory

37. The actual name of the Tetracycline antibiotic given by IUPAC is:
A. Octahydronaphthacene 
B. Saturated tetracyclic system
C. Octahydronathalene 
D. Octahydrophenentrane

38. Select the 8- 8-aminoquinoline derivative from the following list:
A. Chloroquine 
B. Primaquine
C. Quinine 
D. Quinicraine

39. Fill in the following blank: From a clinical standpoint, opioid ------------------is one of the most powerful factors causing opioid dependence and addictive behaviors:
A. Consumption 
B. Taking habit
C. Misuse 
D. Withdrawal

40. Which of the following denotes the polyketide antibiotic?
A. Nystatin 
B. Bacitracin
C. Rifampicin 
D. Chloramphenicol

41. Dihydrothiazine ring is characteristic for:
A. Penicillins 
B. Cephalosporin
C. Tetracycline 
D. Carbapenem

42. Which of the following is not the Iso-oxazolyl Penicillins
A. Oxacillin
B. Cloxacillin
C. Dicloxacillin 
D. Amoxycillin

43. In the basic medium, Tetracycline forms ------------------
A. Isoterracycline 
B. Anhydrotetracycline
C. Rolitetracycline 
D. Hydrotetracycline

44. Which of the following functional groups is characteristic of Streptomycin?
A. Manose  
B. Guanidino group
C. Glucosamine
D. Erythrose

45. All nitrates are prodrugs and used as antianginal drugs that release ----------- after
A. Nitrates 
B. Nitrous oxide
C. Nitric oxide 
D. Nitrogen dioxide

46. An 8-year-old child presented with brownish discolored anterior teeth. He had a history of antibiotic intake about four years earlier. Which antibiotic could be responsible for this condition?
A. Chloramphenicol 
B. Erythromycin
C. Tetracycline 
D. Genetamicin

47. Which of the following statements regarding asthma is incorrect?
A. It is an irreversible small airway obstruction
B. Asthmatics lungs are more sensitive to lower doses of allergens
C. Asthmatics should not use antihistamines
D. Progressive airway inflammation

48. The antidiabetic agent most likely to cause lactic acidosis is:
A. Chlorpropamide 
B. Glipizide
C. Tolbutamide 
D. Metformin

49. Which parameters can get elevated after thiazide diuretic administration?
A. Potassium 
C. Urea 
D. Glucose

50. This antibiotic is not used to treat peptic ulcer disease associated with Helicobacter pylori.
A. Amoxicillin 
B. Vancomycin
C. Metronidazole 
D. Clarithromycin

51. Which of the following is the fastest-acting anticoagulant?
A. Warfarin 
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Heparin 
D. Vitamin K

52. The very widely used drug Losartan is a:
A. Selective AT1 receptor antagonist
B. Selective AT2 receptor antagonist
C. Nonselective AT1 + AT2 receptor antagonist
D. AT1 receptor partial agonist

53. Pancuronium is differentiated from tubocurarine in that:
A. It's a depolarizing blocker.
B. Neostigmine does not reverse its action.
C. It can cause a rise in B.P. on rapid I.V. injection
D. It causes marked histamine release

54. N-acetyl cysteine is an antidote for acute poisoning from:
A. Salicylates 
B. Theophylline 
C. Acetaminophen
D. Lithium

55. Which of the following is a phase II drug metabolism reaction?
A. Acetylation 
B. Reduction
C. Oxidation 
D. Hydrolysis

56. Proton pump inhibitors are more effective when they are given
A. After meals
B. Shortly before meal
C. Along with H2 blocker
D. During a prolonged fasting period

57. Gynecomastia can occur as a side effect of
A. Bromocriptine 
B. Famotidine
C. Cimetidine 
D. Levodopa

58. In which of the following phases of a clinical trial of a drug is ethical clearance not required
A. Phase I 
B. Phase III 
C. Phase II
D. Phase IV

59. A highly ionized drug:
A. Is excreted mainly by the kidney
B. Crosses the placental barrier easily
C. Is easily absorbed from the intestine
D. Is highly protein bound

60. Which of the following drugs have a narrow therapeutic index?
A. Lithium 
B. Penicillin 
C. Diazepam
D. Desipramine

61. Maximum first-pass metabolism is seen by which route
A. Intravenous 
B. Rectal
C. Intraarterial 
D. Oral

62. Drug safely given in pregnancy is
A. Antifolate
B. Chloroquine
C. Tetracycline 
D. Primaquine

63. Type B adverse drug reactions.
A. Augmented Effect of Drug
B. Unpredictable bizarre reaction
C. Effect seen on chronic use of the drug
D. Delayed Effect of the drug

64. Amount of drug left after four plasm half-lives
A. 6.25% 
B. 25% 
C. 12.5%
D. 50%

65. Drugs with high protein binding will have
A. Less glomerular filtration
B. High volume of distribution
C. Less displacement reaction with other drugs
D. Less tubular secretion

66. Dry Cough is an adverse reaction to intake of
A. Prazocin
B. Nifedipine
C. Enalapril 
D. Thiazide

67. MOA of action of aspirin is:
A. inhibits Cox-1 preferentially
B. inhibits Cox-2 preferentially
C. inhibits Cox-1 & Cox-2 reversibly
D. inhibits Cox-1 & Cox-2 irreversibly

68. Ketamine as a general anesthetic is also known as:
A. CNS stimulant 
B. Dissociative anesthetic
C. Partial anesthetic 
D. ANS stimulant

69. At pharmacological doses, unwanted, unavoidable effects are called
A. Toxicity 
B. Side effects 
C. Idiosyncratic reactions
D. Pharmacogenetics

70. Cyclopropane is a –
A. Local anesthetic 
B. General anaesthetic
C. Antibiotic 
D. Antioxidant

71. The word "Hospital" is derived comes from the Latin noun "hopes," which stands for: "-------------------------"
A. Guest or visitor 
C. Friend or well-wisher
B. Relative or visitor 
D. Neighbor or visitor

72. Which method does not come under the perpetual inventory?
A. Pegboard method 
B. Computer method
C. Automated method 
D. Non-automated method.

73. Regarding the Amoxycillin 250 mg D.T., which of the statements below is correct?
A. it is equally or more stable than the syrup dosage form
B. It should not be dissolved in water
C. It should be taken with lemon water
D. It is mainly used for cancer patients

74. One litre of Dextrose 5% fluid contains
A. 25 grams of Glucose 
B. 12.5 grams of Glucose
C. 50 grams of Glucose 
D. 100 grams of Glucose

75. Tapering dose is related to one of the following drugs?
A. Salbutamol 
B. Azithromycin
C. Prednisolone 
D. Ciprofloxacin

76. The thyroid gland normally secretes which of the following substances into the serum?
A. Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)
B. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
C. Diiodothyronine (DIT)
D. Thyroxine (T4)

77. "Unit dose system" is one of the wards' main effective drug delivery systems. As per this system, basically, the drug is supplied to wards for
A. 24 hrs 
B. 2 days 
C. 48 hrs 
D. 7 days

78. Entecavir is a drug used in the treatment of:
A. Hepatitis B 
C. Corona 
D. Common cold

79. Metallic taste' is provoked by the use of
A. Biguanides 
B. Metronidazole
C. Albendazole 
D. Cefixime

80. The Nepal Government has received the coronavirus vaccine as a donation from India. What is the dose and frequency of the vaccine?
A. 0.5 mL and two doses 
B. 0.5 ML single dose
C. 1 mL single dose 
D. 0.5 Ml 3 doses

81. VED analysis is related?
A. Floor stock system
B. Stock Analysis
C.Patient prescription system 
D. Unit dose system

82. Pharmacovigilance is the pharmacological science relating to the adverse effects of pharmaceutical products except
A. Collecting 
B. Assessment
C. Detection 
D. Enhancing

83. One of the following is the antidote of Heparin overdose
A. Protamine Sulphate 
B. Potassium permanganate 
C. Flumazenil
D. Pralidoxime

84. Is therapeutic drug monitoring required for drugs?
A. Very low therapeutic index.
B. Low therapeutic index
C. High therapeutic index. 
D. Oral Analgesic

85. All of the following points are taken into account when calculating the dose for
children except
A. Height 
B. Disease condition
C. Weight 
D. Body surface area

86. What is outside the aims of the hospital formulary system?
A. Evaluation, appraisal, and selection of medicine.
B. Guiding physicians for prescribing
C. Appraisal and use of non-formulary drugs
D. Listing drugs in generic name

87. What are the therapeutic outcomes for a patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus?
A. To keep blood glucose levels above 80 mg/dl
B. To keep blood glucose between 80-130 mg/dl
C. To prevent hypoglycemia
D. To prevent hyperglycemia

88. Standard treatment protocol
A. Reduce the treatment cost
B. Systematically developed statements to help practitioners
C. They should contain information on clinical features.
D. Individualized.

89. The HbA1c test is done in the following condition
A. Anaemia 
B. Thyroid problem
C. Cardiac problem 
D. Diabetes

90. Why is warfarin tagged as a "special drug" when it comes to checking
process before administration?
A. They need to be dissolved before administration.
B. Clients often have difficulties in swallowing these medications.
C. They need to be crushed before administering
D. They have a narrow therapeutic index, and there is a greater potential for toxicity if mistakes in dosage occur

91. What is the nature of a drug idiosyncrasy?
A. It is an unexpected reaction to the medication.
B. It is a normal response to medication.
C. It is an intentional response to medication.
D. It is a unique reaction to medication.

92. The calorie value of protein is
A. 4.0 Kcal/g 
C. 9.0 Kcal/g
B. 15.0 Kcal/g 
D.12.0 Kcal/g

93. Which one of the following statements regarding medication history is incorrect?
A. Medication history guides about drug allergy.
B. Previous treatment related to the chronic disease.
C. Helps in selecting the antibiotic for treatment of infection.
D. Helps to access drug abuse

94. Nephrotoxicity is one of the complications of
A. Penicillins 
C. Cephalosporines
B. Aminoglycosides 
D. Tetracyclines

95. Which of the following statements regarding medication history must be corrected?
A. Medication history guides about drug allergy.
B. Previous treatment related to the chronic disease.
C. Helps in selecting the antibiotic for treatment of infection.
D. Helps to access the drug abuse.

96. How many grams of citric acid is required to neutralize one molar NaOH when 1 mole of citric acid= 3 moles NaOH and M.W. of citric acid =192.10 g?
A. 0.06403 g 
B. 0.6403 g 
C. 64 g 
D. 0.006403 g

97. What is the color of indicator Phenolphthalein at pH above 11:
A. Colorless 
B. Pink 
C. Red 
D. Green

98. Which of the following is false about wavelengths of electromagnetic Radiation?
A. Radiation with short wavelengths has high energies
B. Energy does not depend on the wavelength
C. Radiation with long wavelengths has low energies
D. Energy depends on the wavelength

99. Chromatography is a physical method that is used to separate and analyze_________
A. Simple mixtures 
B. Viscous mixtures
C. Complex mixtures 
D. Metals

100. NMR is the study of absorption of ________ by nuclei in a magnetic field.
A. Radioactive Radiation 
B. Radiofrequency radiation
C. I.R. radiation
D. Microwaves 

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