Nepal Pharmacy Council Website Model Question with answer for bachelor in pharmacy license exam
1. An alcoholic or hydro-alcoholic (more than 60% alcohol) solution of volatile substance is known …………………
B. Spirit
C. Gargle
D. Tincture
2. The introduction of liquid into the rectum via the anus for cleansing, stimulating bowel evacuation, or for other therapeutic or diagnostic purposes is referred to as..........
B. Suppositories
C. Pessaries
D. Implants
3. ………….... mill is used to reduce the particle size of sticky materials.
B. Fluid energy
C. Ball
D. Pin
4. If the drug distributes instantly throughout the body, the drug follows ………….compartment model.
B. Non
C. Two
D. Three
5. ………………. is required to calculate the loading dose:
B. Vd
C. Clearance
D. Cpmax
6. BCS class …………. drugs have low solubility and high permeability.
B. II
C. III
D. IV
7. To achieve proper coating, the spray angle should be kept at …………….º with the tablet bed.
B. 45
C. 30
D. 90
8. In this glass, the surface is treated with sulfur dioxide;
B. Type III
C. Type II
D. Type IV
9. Hausner's ratio between 1.12-1.18 indicates…
B. Poor flow
C. Good flow
D. Very Poor flow
10. The central part of a punch that receives compression force from the roller is;
B. Head flat
C. Barrel
D. Inside Head angle
11. During pre-formulation studies, the intrinsic solubility of a drug is measured at…
B. -4°C and 37°C
C. 8°C and 40°C
D. -8°C and 40°C
12. Tabletose is:
B. Direct compressible starch
C. Direct compressible lactose
D. Dicalcium Phosphate
13. According to I.P., the disintegration time of enteric coated tablet in mixed phosphate buffer( pH 6.8) after testing in 0.1MHCl is;
B. 30 minute
C. 2 hour
D. 45 minute
14. Which of the following is the absorption base used to make ointment?
B. Polyethylene glycol
C. Anhydrous Lanolin
D. White ointment
15. The area under the serum concentration versus time curve represents
B. Amount of drug cleared by kidneys
C. Amount of drug in original dosage form
D. Amount of drug absorbed
16. PDCA cycle in quality means
B. Perform, Do, Check, and Act
C. Plan, Do, Check and Act
D. Proceed, Do, Check, and Assure
17. Wetting ability of the vehicle is detected by observing…
B. Critical angel
C. Angle of repose
D. Carr's index
18. The substance that increases the viscosity of the continuous phase in a suspension is
known as:
B. Flocculating agent
C. Wetting agent
D. Dispersing agents
19. Carr's Consolidation index 5-10% means ……………………. Flow property.
B. Good
C. Fair
D. Poor
20. …………… is used to cut DNA molecules in rDNA technology
B. Ribonuclease
C. Phosphatase
D.Restriction enzymes
21. PPE in biosafety is …………
B. Personal Protective Equipment
C. Possible protective equipment
D. Passable protective equipment
22. The Best method for Aspirin Tablet manufacturing is:
B. Aqueous manual granulation
C. Aqueous autoprocessing
D. Dry granulation
23. A decrease in moisture content of an empty capsule below 10% can render the capsule………
B.Flexible
C. Sticky
D.Color loss
24. Filler is synonymous with........
B. Disintegrant
C. Diluents
D. Glidant
25. In ……………..……., both heat and pressure are used.
B. Infusion
C. Decoction
D. Maceration
26. The ……… provides the alternative route to aromatic compounds, particularly amino acids such as Tyrosine, Tryptophan, etc.
B. Acetate pathway
C. Mevalonate pathway
D. DOXP pathway
27. Which one is cyanogenic glycoside?
B. Glycyrrhiza
C. Sennosides
D. Amygdalin
28. Phenytoin can be synthesized by using;
B. Benzoyl chloride
C.Glycine
D. Benzoic acid
29. Which of the following is not a Catecholamine Neurotransmitter?
B. Serotonin
C. Noradrenalin
D. Adrenaline
30. Dextromethorphane contains the following functional group in its aromatic ring:
B -OCH3
C. - O.H.
D. – COOH
31. Pethidine and Procaine both contain N- alkyl radicals, and both are esters; during the first phase of metabolism, N- dealkylation occurs, which is denoted as:
B. Hydrolysis
C.Reductive Reaction
D. Electrophilic reaction
32. ---------- acts as antitussive by selectively suppressing cough without narcotic, analgesic, or dependence-inducing properties:
B. Noscapine
C. Bromhexine
D. Pholcodeine
33. Which of the following alkaloids contain the N-atom in the tertiary-amine form (R3N):
B. Berberine
C. Ephedrine
D. Cocaine
34. Which of the following is not an Analeptic stimulant?
B. Nikethamide
C. Amphetamine
D. Strychnine
35. Which of the following denotes the polyene antibiotic?
B. Bacitracin
C. Rifampicin
D. Chloramphenicol
36. Natural penicillins are strong --------
B. Enantiomers
C. Racemat
D. Dextrorotatory
37. The actual name of the Tetracycline antibiotic given by IUPAC is:
B. Saturated tetracyclic system
C. Octahydronathalene
D. Octahydrophenentrane
38. Select the 8- 8-aminoquinoline derivative from the following list:
B. Primaquine
C. Quinine
D. Quinicraine
39. Fill in the following blank: From a clinical standpoint, opioid ------------------is one of the most powerful factors causing opioid dependence and addictive behaviors:
B. Taking habit
C. Misuse
D. Withdrawal
40. Which of the following denotes the polyketide antibiotic?
B. Bacitracin
C. Rifampicin
D. Chloramphenicol
41. Dihydrothiazine ring is characteristic for:
B. Cephalosporin
C. Tetracycline
D. Carbapenem
42. Which of the following is not the Iso-oxazolyl Penicillins
B. Cloxacillin
C. Dicloxacillin
D. Amoxycillin
43. In the basic medium, Tetracycline forms ------------------
B. Anhydrotetracycline
C. Rolitetracycline
D. Hydrotetracycline
44. Which of the following functional groups is characteristic of Streptomycin?
B. Guanidino group
C. Glucosamine
D. Erythrose
45. All nitrates are prodrugs and used as antianginal drugs that release ----------- after
metabolism:
B. Nitrous oxide
C. Nitric oxide
D. Nitrogen dioxide
46. An 8-year-old child presented with brownish discolored anterior teeth. He had a history of antibiotic intake about four years earlier. Which antibiotic could be responsible for this condition?
B. Erythromycin
C. Tetracycline
D. Genetamicin
47. Which of the following statements regarding asthma is incorrect?
B. Asthmatics lungs are more sensitive to lower doses of allergens
C. Asthmatics should not use antihistamines
D. Progressive airway inflammation
48. The antidiabetic agent most likely to cause lactic acidosis is:
B. Glipizide
C. Tolbutamide
D. Metformin
49. Which parameters can get elevated after thiazide diuretic administration?
B. BUN
C. Urea
D. Glucose
50. This antibiotic is not used to treat peptic ulcer disease associated with Helicobacter pylori.
B. Vancomycin
C. Metronidazole
D. Clarithromycin
51. Which of the following is the fastest-acting anticoagulant?
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Heparin
D. Vitamin K
52. The very widely used drug Losartan is a:
B. Selective AT2 receptor antagonist
C. Nonselective AT1 + AT2 receptor antagonist
D. AT1 receptor partial agonist
53. Pancuronium is differentiated from tubocurarine in that:
B. Neostigmine does not reverse its action.
C. It can cause a rise in B.P. on rapid I.V. injection
D. It causes marked histamine release
54. N-acetyl cysteine is an antidote for acute poisoning from:
A. Salicylates
C. Acetaminophen
D. Lithium
55. Which of the following is a phase II drug metabolism reaction?
B. Reduction
C. Oxidation
D. Hydrolysis
56. Proton pump inhibitors are more effective when they are given
B. Shortly before meal
C. Along with H2 blocker
D. During a prolonged fasting period
57. Gynecomastia can occur as a side effect of
B. Famotidine
C. Cimetidine
D. Levodopa
58. In which of the following phases of a clinical trial of a drug is ethical clearance not required
B. Phase III
C. Phase II
D. Phase IV
59. A highly ionized drug:
B. Crosses the placental barrier easily
C. Is easily absorbed from the intestine
D. Is highly protein bound
60. Which of the following drugs have a narrow therapeutic index?
B. Penicillin
C. Diazepam
D. Desipramine
61. Maximum first-pass metabolism is seen by which route
B. Rectal
C. Intraarterial
D. Oral
62. Drug safely given in pregnancy is
B. Chloroquine
C. Tetracycline
D. Primaquine
63. Type B adverse drug reactions.
B. Unpredictable bizarre reaction
C. Effect seen on chronic use of the drug
D. Delayed Effect of the drug
64. Amount of drug left after four plasm half-lives
B. 25%
C. 12.5%
D. 50%
65. Drugs with high protein binding will have
B. High volume of distribution
C. Less displacement reaction with other drugs
D. Less tubular secretion
66. Dry Cough is an adverse reaction to intake of
B. Nifedipine
C. Enalapril
D. Thiazide
67. MOA of action of aspirin is:
B. inhibits Cox-2 preferentially
C. inhibits Cox-1 & Cox-2 reversibly
D. inhibits Cox-1 & Cox-2 irreversibly
68. Ketamine as a general anesthetic is also known as:
B. Dissociative anesthetic
C. Partial anesthetic
D. ANS stimulant
69. At pharmacological doses, unwanted, unavoidable effects are called
B. Side effects
C. Idiosyncratic reactions
D. Pharmacogenetics
70. Cyclopropane is a –
B. General anaesthetic
C. Antibiotic
D. Antioxidant
71. The word "Hospital" is derived comes from the Latin noun "hopes," which stands for: "-------------------------"
C. Friend or well-wisher
B. Relative or visitor
D. Neighbor or visitor
72. Which method does not come under the perpetual inventory?
B. Computer method
C. Automated method
D. Non-automated method.
73. Regarding the Amoxycillin 250 mg D.T., which of the statements below is correct?
B. It should not be dissolved in water
C. It should be taken with lemon water
D. It is mainly used for cancer patients
74. One litre of Dextrose 5% fluid contains
B. 12.5 grams of Glucose
C. 50 grams of Glucose
D. 100 grams of Glucose
75. Tapering dose is related to one of the following drugs?
B. Azithromycin
C. Prednisolone
D. Ciprofloxacin
76. The thyroid gland normally secretes which of the following substances into the serum?
B. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
C. Diiodothyronine (DIT)
D. Thyroxine (T4)
77. "Unit dose system" is one of the wards' main effective drug delivery systems. As per this system, basically, the drug is supplied to wards for
B. 2 days
C. 48 hrs
D. 7 days
78. Entecavir is a drug used in the treatment of:
B. HIV
C. Corona
D. Common cold
79. Metallic taste' is provoked by the use of
B. Metronidazole
C. Albendazole
D. Cefixime
80. The Nepal Government has received the coronavirus vaccine as a donation from India. What is the dose and frequency of the vaccine?
B. 0.5 ML single dose
C. 1 mL single dose
D. 0.5 Ml 3 doses
81. VED analysis is related?
B. Stock Analysis
C.Patient prescription system
D. Unit dose system
82. Pharmacovigilance is the pharmacological science relating to the adverse effects of pharmaceutical products except
B. Assessment
C. Detection
D. Enhancing
83. One of the following is the antidote of Heparin overdose
B. Potassium permanganate
C. Flumazenil
D. Pralidoxime
84. Is therapeutic drug monitoring required for drugs?
B. Low therapeutic index
C. High therapeutic index.
D. Oral Analgesic
85. All of the following points are taken into account when calculating the dose for
children except
B. Disease condition
C. Weight
D. Body surface area
86. What is outside the aims of the hospital formulary system?
B. Guiding physicians for prescribing
C. Appraisal and use of non-formulary drugs
D. Listing drugs in generic name
87. What are the therapeutic outcomes for a patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus?
B. To keep blood glucose between 80-130 mg/dl
C. To prevent hypoglycemia
D. To prevent hyperglycemia
88. Standard treatment protocol
B. Systematically developed statements to help practitioners
C. They should contain information on clinical features.
D. Individualized.
89. The HbA1c test is done in the following condition
B. Thyroid problem
C. Cardiac problem
D. Diabetes
90. Why is warfarin tagged as a "special drug" when it comes to checking
process before administration?
B. Clients often have difficulties in swallowing these medications.
C. They need to be crushed before administering
D. They have a narrow therapeutic index, and there is a greater potential for toxicity if mistakes in dosage occur
91. What is the nature of a drug idiosyncrasy?
B. It is a normal response to medication.
C. It is an intentional response to medication.
D. It is a unique reaction to medication.
92. The calorie value of protein is
C. 9.0 Kcal/g
B. 15.0 Kcal/g
D.12.0 Kcal/g
93. Which one of the following statements regarding medication history is incorrect?
A. Medication history guides about drug allergy.
B. Previous treatment related to the chronic disease.
C. Helps in selecting the antibiotic for treatment of infection.
D. Helps to access drug abuse
A. Penicillins
C. Cephalosporines
B. Aminoglycosides
95. Which of the following statements regarding medication history must be corrected?A. Medication history guides about drug allergy.
B. Previous treatment related to the chronic disease.
C. Helps in selecting the antibiotic for treatment of infection.
96. How many grams of citric acid is required to neutralize one molar NaOH when 1 mole of citric acid= 3 moles NaOH and M.W. of citric acid =192.10 g?A. 0.06403 g
B. 0.6403 g
C. 64 g
97. What is the color of indicator Phenolphthalein at pH above 11:A. Colorless
B. Pink
C. Red
98. Which of the following is false about wavelengths of electromagnetic Radiation?A. Radiation with short wavelengths has high energies
B. Energy does not depend on the wavelength
C. Radiation with long wavelengths has low energies
99. Chromatography is a physical method that is used to separate and analyze_________
A. Radioactive Radiation
B. Radiofrequency radiation
C. I.R. radiation
94. Nephrotoxicity is one of the complications of
C. Cephalosporines
B. Aminoglycosides
D. Tetracyclines
95. Which of the following statements regarding medication history must be corrected?
B. Previous treatment related to the chronic disease.
C. Helps in selecting the antibiotic for treatment of infection.
D. Helps to access the drug abuse.
96. How many grams of citric acid is required to neutralize one molar NaOH when 1 mole of citric acid= 3 moles NaOH and M.W. of citric acid =192.10 g?
B. 0.6403 g
C. 64 g
D. 0.006403 g
97. What is the color of indicator Phenolphthalein at pH above 11:
B. Pink
C. Red
D. Green
98. Which of the following is false about wavelengths of electromagnetic Radiation?
B. Energy does not depend on the wavelength
C. Radiation with long wavelengths has low energies
D. Energy depends on the wavelength
99. Chromatography is a physical method that is used to separate and analyze_________
A. Simple mixtures
B. Viscous mixtures
C. Complex mixtures
D. Metals
100. NMR is the study of absorption of ________ by nuclei in a magnetic field.
B. Radiofrequency radiation
C. I.R. radiation
D. Microwaves
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