Nepal Pharmacy Council Website Model Questions with answer (Part-1)

Preparing for the Nepal Pharmacy Council licensing examination requires revision across pharmaceutical sciences, pharmaceutics, pharmacology, pharmaceutical chemistry, pharmacognosy, quality control, biopharmaceutics and pharmacy practice. This collection of model MCQs is designed to help Bachelor of Pharmacy students practise important concepts and identify areas that need further revision.

These questions are presented for educational and examination-practice purposes. They should not be considered an official Nepal Pharmacy Council question paper unless specifically published by the Council.

For additional practice, you can also study Nepal Pharmacy Council Model Questions – Part 2 and Part 3.

Students preparing pharmaceutical analysis can also revise our Pharmaceutical Analysis MCQs for the Nepal Pharmacy Council Exam.

1. An alcoholic or hydro-alcoholic solution containing more than 60% alcohol and a volatile substance is known as:

A. Elixir
B. Spirit
C. Gargle
D. Tincture

Answer: B. Spirit

Explanation: Spirits are alcoholic or hydroalcoholic preparations containing volatile substances. Elixirs are generally sweetened hydroalcoholic oral liquids.

2. Introduction of a liquid into the rectum through the anus for cleansing or therapeutic purposes is called:

A. Enema
B. Suppository
C. Pessary
D. Implant

Answer: A. Enema

Explanation: An enema is a liquid preparation administered through the rectum for cleansing, evacuation or therapeutic purposes.

3. Which mill is commonly used to reduce the particle size of sticky materials?

A. Rod mill
B. Fluid-energy mill
C. Ball mill
D. Pin mill

Answer: D. Pin mill

Explanation: Pin mills use impact and shear forces and can be useful for reducing the particle size of certain materials.

4. If a drug distributes instantaneously throughout the body, which compartment model is generally used?

A. One-compartment model
B. Non-compartment model
C. Two-compartment model
D. Three-compartment model

Answer: A. One-compartment model

Explanation: In a one-compartment model, the body is treated as a single homogeneous compartment and distribution is assumed to occur rapidly.

5. Which parameter is required to calculate a loading dose?

A. AUC
B. Volume of distribution (Vd)
C. Clearance
D. Cmax

Answer: B. Volume of distribution (Vd)

Explanation: Loading dose is related to the desired plasma concentration and volume of distribution. A common relationship is Loading dose = C_target × Vd / F.

6. BCS Class II drugs have:

A. High solubility and high permeability
B. Low solubility and high permeability
C. High solubility and low permeability
D. Low solubility and low permeability

Answer: B. Low solubility and high permeability

Explanation: The Biopharmaceutics Classification System classifies drugs according to aqueous solubility and intestinal permeability.

7. During tablet coating, which spray angle is commonly used relative to the tablet bed?

A. 60°
B. 45°
C. 30°
D. 90°

Answer: B. 45°

Explanation: Spray angle and spray pattern influence coating uniformity. Actual settings depend on the coating equipment and process.

8. In which type of pharmaceutical glass is the surface treated with sulfur dioxide?

A. Type I
B. Type III
C. Type II
D. Type IV

Answer: C. Type II

Explanation: Type II glass is soda-lime-silica glass whose inner surface is treated to improve hydrolytic resistance.

9. A Hausner's ratio of approximately 1.12–1.18 generally indicates:

A. Excellent flow
B. Poor flow
C. Good flow
D. Very poor flow

Answer: C. Good flow

Explanation: Hausner's ratio is used as an indicator of powder flowability. Lower values generally indicate better flow.

10. Which part of a tablet punch receives the compression force from the roller?

A. Head
B. Head flat
C. Barrel
D. Inside head angle

Answer: A. Head

Explanation: The punch head contacts the compression rollers and transfers force through the punch to the powder bed.

11. Tabletose is:

A. Starch
B. Directly compressible starch
C. Directly compressible lactose
D. Dicalcium phosphate

Answer: C. Directly compressible lactose

Explanation: Tabletose is a commercially prepared form of lactose used as a tablet diluent and designed to improve direct compression properties.

12. According to pharmacopoeial testing, enteric-coated tablets are tested in acidic medium followed by a buffer stage. The purpose is to:

A. Ensure immediate drug release in the stomach
B. Confirm resistance to gastric conditions followed by appropriate release
C. Increase tablet hardness
D. Measure tablet thickness

Answer: B. Confirm resistance to gastric conditions followed by appropriate release

Explanation: Enteric coating is designed to resist gastric conditions and allow drug release after the dosage form reaches the appropriate intestinal environment.

13. Which is an absorption base used in ointment formulation?

A. Hard paraffin
B. Polyethylene glycol
C. Anhydrous lanolin
D. White ointment

Answer: C. Anhydrous lanolin

Explanation: Anhydrous lanolin is an absorption base and can incorporate aqueous liquids to form water-in-oil type systems.

14. The area under the plasma concentration-time curve (AUC) primarily represents:

A. Biological half-life
B. Amount of drug cleared by the kidneys
C. Amount of drug remaining in the dosage form
D. Systemic exposure to the drug

Answer: D. Systemic exposure to the drug

Explanation: AUC is a major pharmacokinetic measure of systemic drug exposure.

15. PDCA in quality management stands for:

A. Prepare, Do, Check and Act
B. Perform, Do, Check and Act
C. Plan, Do, Check and Act
D. Proceed, Do, Check and Assure

Answer: C. Plan, Do, Check and Act

Explanation: PDCA is a continuous-improvement cycle used to plan a change, implement it, evaluate the result and take appropriate action.

If you are studying pharmaceutical quality systems, you may also find our article on CAPA in the Pharmaceutical Industry useful for understanding corrective and preventive actions.

16. The wetting ability of a vehicle can be evaluated by observing:

A. Contact angle
B. Critical angle
C. Angle of repose
D. Carr's index

Answer: A. Contact angle

Explanation: Contact angle provides information about the interaction between a liquid and a solid surface and is commonly used to evaluate wetting.

17. A substance that increases the viscosity of the continuous phase of a suspension is called:

A. Suspending agent
B. Flocculating agent
C. Wetting agent
D. Dispersing agent

Answer: A. Suspending agent

Explanation: Suspending agents increase vehicle viscosity and help reduce the rate at which suspended particles settle.

18. Carr's index is used primarily to evaluate:

A. Tablet hardness
B. Powder flow and compressibility
C. Drug potency
D. Dissolution rate

Answer: B. Powder flow and compressibility

Explanation: Carr's index, also called compressibility index, is calculated from bulk and tapped density and provides an indication of powder flow behavior.

19. Which enzyme is used to cut DNA molecules in recombinant DNA technology?

A. Ligase
B. Ribonuclease
C. Phosphatase
D. Restriction enzyme

Answer: D. Restriction enzyme

Explanation: Restriction enzymes recognize specific DNA sequences and cleave DNA at or near those sites.

20. PPE in biosafety stands for:

A. Public Protective Equipment
B. Personal Protective Equipment
C. Possible Protective Equipment
D. Passable Protective Equipment

Answer: B. Personal Protective Equipment

Explanation: PPE includes protective equipment such as gloves, laboratory coats, masks and eye protection used to reduce occupational exposure.

21. Which method may be appropriate for manufacturing aspirin tablets?

A. Wet granulation
B. Aqueous manual granulation
C. Aqueous autoprocessing
D. Dry granulation

Answer: D. Dry granulation, depending on the formulation

Explanation: Aspirin is susceptible to hydrolysis, so an aqueous granulation process may be undesirable. The final manufacturing method depends on the formulation and validated process.

22. A decrease in moisture content of a hard gelatin capsule shell below an appropriate level can make the capsule:

A. Brittle
B. Flexible
C. Sticky
D. Discolored

Answer: A. Brittle

Explanation: Gelatin capsules require an appropriate moisture level. Excessive loss of moisture can make the shell brittle.

23. Filler is synonymous with:

A. Binder
B. Disintegrant
C. Diluent
D. Glidant

Answer: C. Diluent

Explanation: Diluents or fillers increase the bulk of a formulation and help produce tablets of suitable size.

24. Which extraction method involves both heat and pressure?

A. Digestion
B. Infusion
C. Decoction
D. Maceration

Answer: C. Decoction

Explanation: Decoction involves heating plant material with water, generally for relatively tough plant materials such as roots and bark.

25. The shikimate pathway provides a route to aromatic compounds and aromatic amino acids such as:

A. Tyrosine and tryptophan
B. Glycine and alanine
C. Lysine and arginine
D. Valine and leucine

Answer: A. Tyrosine and tryptophan

Explanation: The shikimate pathway is involved in the biosynthesis of aromatic compounds and aromatic amino acids in plants and microorganisms.

26. Which of the following is a cyanogenic glycoside?

A. Digoxin
B. Glycyrrhizin
C. Sennoside
D. Amygdalin

Answer: D. Amygdalin

Explanation: Amygdalin is a cyanogenic glycoside found in certain plant seeds and can release hydrogen cyanide under appropriate conditions.

27. Phenytoin can be synthesized using:

A. Benzil
B. Benzoyl chloride
C. Glycine
D. Benzoic acid

Answer: A. Benzil

Explanation: A classical synthesis of phenytoin involves benzil and urea under suitable reaction conditions.

28. Which of the following is not a catecholamine neurotransmitter?

A. Dopamine
B. Serotonin
C. Noradrenaline
D. Adrenaline

Answer: B. Serotonin

Explanation: Dopamine, noradrenaline and adrenaline are catecholamines. Serotonin is an indoleamine neurotransmitter.

29. Dextromethorphan contains which functional group on its aromatic ring?

A. CH₃
B. –OCH₃
C. –OH
D. –COOH

Answer: B. –OCH₃

Explanation: Dextromethorphan contains a methoxy group attached to its aromatic ring.

30. N-dealkylation during drug metabolism is generally classified as:

A. Oxidative reaction
B. Hydrolysis
C. Reductive reaction
D. Electrophilic reaction

Answer: A. Oxidative reaction

Explanation: N-dealkylation is commonly a Phase I oxidative metabolic reaction mediated by drug-metabolizing enzymes.

31. Which drug acts as a non-opioid antitussive without the typical narcotic analgesic effects of codeine?

A. Codeine
B. Noscapine
C. Bromhexine
D. Pholcodine

Answer: B. Noscapine

Explanation: Noscapine is an opioid alkaloid used as an antitussive but does not have the typical analgesic and dependence profile of morphine-like opioids.

32. Which antibiotic is classified as a polyene antibiotic?

A. Nystatin
B. Bacitracin
C. Rifampicin
D. Chloramphenicol

Answer: A. Nystatin

Explanation: Nystatin is a polyene antifungal that binds to ergosterol in fungal cell membranes.

For another pharmaceutical topic, you can also read our article on pharmaceutical excipients and their functions.

33. Natural penicillins are generally:

A. Levorotatory
B. Enantiomers
C. Racemic
D. Dextrorotatory

Answer: A. Levorotatory

Explanation: Natural penicillins possess specific stereochemical configurations and are commonly described as levorotatory.

34. Which is an 8-aminoquinoline antimalarial?

A. Chloroquine
B. Primaquine
C. Quinine
D. Quinacrine

Answer: B. Primaquine

Explanation: Primaquine is an 8-aminoquinoline antimalarial particularly important for eliminating dormant liver stages of certain Plasmodium species.

35. Which factor is strongly associated with opioid dependence and addictive behavior?

A. Appropriate therapeutic use
B. Misuse
C. Withdrawal alone
D. Storage

Answer: B. Misuse

Explanation: Repeated misuse of opioids can lead to tolerance, dependence and substance use disorder.

36. Which antibiotic is a polyketide?

A. Nystatin
B. Bacitracin
C. Rifampicin
D. Chloramphenicol

Answer: C. Rifampicin

Explanation: Rifampicin is a rifamycin antibiotic produced by microorganisms through a polyketide biosynthetic pathway.

37. The dihydrothiazine ring is characteristic of:

A. Penicillins
B. Cephalosporins
C. Tetracyclines
D. Carbapenems

Answer: B. Cephalosporins

Explanation: Cephalosporins contain a beta-lactam ring fused to a dihydrothiazine ring.

38. Which is not an isoxazolyl penicillin?

A. Oxacillin
B. Cloxacillin
C. Dicloxacillin
D. Amoxicillin

Answer: D. Amoxicillin

Explanation: Oxacillin, cloxacillin and dicloxacillin are isoxazolyl penicillins. Amoxicillin belongs to the aminopenicillin group.

39. Tetracycline can undergo degradation in alkaline conditions. This is important because:

A. It can affect chemical stability
B. It increases tablet hardness
C. It prevents absorption
D. It changes the packaging only

Answer: A. It can affect chemical stability

Explanation: Tetracyclines are sensitive to pH and can undergo chemical changes under unsuitable conditions.

40. Which functional group is characteristic of streptomycin?

A. Mannose
B. Guanidino group
C. Glucosamine
D. Erythrose

Answer: B. Guanidino group

Explanation: Streptomycin contains a guanidino-containing streptidine moiety as part of its structure.

41. Organic nitrates used as antianginal drugs release which mediator after metabolism?

A. Nitrate
B. Nitrous oxide
C. Nitric oxide
D. Nitrogen dioxide

Answer: C. Nitric oxide

Explanation: Organic nitrates increase nitric oxide signaling, producing vascular smooth-muscle relaxation and reducing cardiac workload.

42. Which antibiotic can cause permanent tooth discoloration when exposure occurs during tooth development?

A. Chloramphenicol
B. Erythromycin
C. Tetracycline
D. Gentamicin

Answer: C. Tetracycline

Explanation: Tetracyclines can bind to calcium in developing teeth and bones, potentially causing permanent discoloration.

43. Which statement about asthma is incorrect?

A. Asthma involves reversible variable airflow limitation
B. Airway hyperresponsiveness can occur
C. Airway inflammation is involved
D. Asthma is always an irreversible airway obstruction

Answer: D. Asthma is always an irreversible airway obstruction

Explanation: Asthma is characterized by variable respiratory symptoms and airflow limitation that is often reversible, either spontaneously or with treatment.

44. Which antidiabetic drug is associated with the risk of lactic acidosis?

A. Chlorpropamide
B. Glipizide
C. Tolbutamide
D. Metformin

Answer: D. Metformin

Explanation: Metformin-associated lactic acidosis is rare but serious, with risk increased in certain patients, particularly those with significant renal impairment or other contraindications.

45. Thiazide diuretics may increase:

A. Potassium
B. BUN
C. Urea
D. Blood glucose

Answer: D. Blood glucose

Explanation: Thiazide diuretics can cause metabolic effects including increases in blood glucose and uric acid, while they may decrease serum potassium.

46. Which antibiotic is not part of standard Helicobacter pylori eradication regimens?

A. Amoxicillin
B. Vancomycin
C. Metronidazole
D. Clarithromycin

Answer: B. Vancomycin

Explanation: Amoxicillin, clarithromycin and metronidazole have been used in H. pylori eradication regimens, while vancomycin is not a standard component.

47. Which is the fastest-acting anticoagulant among the following?

A. Warfarin
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Heparin
D. Vitamin K

Answer: C. Heparin

Explanation: Unfractionated heparin has a rapid anticoagulant effect when administered intravenously. Warfarin has a delayed onset.

48. Losartan is:

A. A selective AT1 receptor antagonist
B. A selective AT2 receptor antagonist
C. A nonselective AT1 and AT2 antagonist
D. An AT1 receptor partial agonist

Answer: A. A selective AT1 receptor antagonist

Explanation: Losartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker that selectively antagonizes the AT1 receptor.

49. Pancuronium differs from tubocurarine because pancuronium:

A. Is a depolarizing blocker
B. Cannot be reversed by neostigmine
C. Can increase blood pressure after rapid IV administration
D. Causes marked histamine release

Answer: C. Can increase blood pressure after rapid IV administration

Explanation: Pancuronium is a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker and can produce cardiovascular effects including tachycardia and increased blood pressure.

50. Which statement best describes this collection?

A. Official Nepal Pharmacy Council examination paper
B. Model/practice questions for examination preparation
C. Legal document
D. Clinical treatment guideline

Answer: B. Model/practice questions for examination preparation

Explanation: These questions are intended as study material. Candidates should verify regulatory and factual information against current official sources.

How to Use These MCQs for Nepal Pharmacy Council Preparation

Do not rely only on memorizing the correct option. First attempt each question without looking at the answer, then read the explanation and revise the underlying concept. This approach can be especially useful for pharmaceutics, pharmacology, pharmaceutical chemistry and pharmaceutical analysis.

For more practice, continue with Nepal Pharmacy Council Model Questions – Part 2 and Part 3.

You can also revise previous examination questions through Nepal Pharmacy Council Past Questions and Nepal Pharmacy Council Past Questions – Part 2.

Conclusion

Regular practice with MCQs can help pharmacy students identify weak areas and improve examination performance. However, students should understand the concepts behind each answer rather than depending only on memorized options.

Because pharmaceutical laws, regulations, clinical recommendations and examination requirements can change, candidates should verify current regulatory information using official sources before the examination.

References

1. Nepal Pharmacy Council – official regulatory and professional information.
2. Department of Drug Administration, Nepal – pharmaceutical regulatory information.
3. World Health Organization – pharmaceutical and public-health resources.
4. Standard pharmacology, pharmaceutics, pharmaceutical chemistry and pharmacognosy textbooks.

Disclaimer: This article is provided for educational and examination-revision purposes only. It is not an official Nepal Pharmacy Council examination paper, legal advice or medical advice. Some older model questions may contain outdated wording or answers. Always verify current laws, regulations, drug classifications and professional requirements from the relevant official authorities.